UPSC SOLVE PAPER 2025 -GS -

Question 1: With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds

II. Stocks

III. Hedge Funds

IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs)?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are investment vehicles that differ from traditional investments like stocks and bonds. They typically involve more complex strategies, higher risk, and are often targeted at sophisticated investors.

Bonds and Stocks (I and II) are considered traditional investments.
Hedge Funds (III) and Venture Capital (IV) are prime examples of Alternative Investment Funds. They pool capital from investors to deploy in specialized strategies. Therefore, only two (Hedge Funds and Venture Capital) are treated as AIFs.

Question 2: Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling government bonds

II. Buying and selling foreign currency

III. Pension fund management

IV. Lending to private companies

V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only

(b) I, III and IV

(d) I, II and V

Answer: (d) I, II and V

Explanation:

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) earns income through various operations:

Buying and selling government bonds (I): This refers to Open Market Operations (OMOs). RBI earns interest on the government bonds it holds and can profit from buying and selling them. This is a major income source.
Buying and selling foreign currency (II): RBI manages India’s foreign exchange reserves. It earns interest on foreign currency assets and profits from forex market operations. This is another significant income source.
Pension fund management (III): RBI manages a pension fund for its own employees, but it’s not a primary source of income for the bank itself through managing external funds.
Lending to private companies (IV): RBI primarily lends to commercial banks (through the repo rate, etc.) and the government, not directly to private companies.
Printing and distributing currency notes (V): This generates income through ‘seigniorage’. Seigniorage is the profit made by a government by issuing currency, especially the difference between the face value of coins/notes and their production costs. This is a source of income for the RBI. Thus, I, II, and V are the primary sources of income.

Question 3:With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization	Some of its Functions	It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

How many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (B) Only two

Explanation:

Let’s check each row:

I. Directorate of Enforcement (ED): The ED is indeed the agency responsible for enforcing the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018. It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Row I is incorrect.
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI): The DRI is the primary intelligence agency for customs-related matters and works to enforce provisions of the Customs Act, 1962. It functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. This row appears correct.
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management: This directorate, under the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC) which is part of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, is responsible for IT infrastructure, including using data

Question 4: Consider the following statements:

I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation:

Statement I: The mandate for the Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) comes from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the RBI. Furthermore, SEBI mandates it for the top 1000 listed companies (by market capitalization), not all listed companies. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.
Statement II: The BRSR framework requires companies to report on their performance against nine principles of the ‘National Guidelines on Responsible Business Conduct’. These cover Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) aspects. While these can have financial implications, the disclosures themselves (e.g., carbon emissions, water usage, employee welfare policies, board diversity) are largely non-financial in nature. Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Question 5: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming, wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income Tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement2 I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation:

Statement I: While income from basic agricultural operations is generally exempt from income tax, income from allied activities like poultry farming, dairy farming, beekeeping, etc., is typically treated as business income and is taxable under the Income Tax Act. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.
Statement II: The Income Tax Act, 1961, defines ‘capital asset’ but explicitly excludes rural agricultural land (subject to certain conditions regarding its distance from municipalities and population). This means that any profit or gain arising from the sale of such rural agricultural land is not subject to capital gains tax. Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Question 6: Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

II. India is a resource-rich country in many of the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licenses for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) I and III only

Explanation:

Statement I: India joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023. The MSP aims to secure critical mineral supply chains. Therefore, Statement I is correct.
Statement II: India has identified a list of critical minerals, but it is not resource-rich in many of them. India heavily relies on imports for several key critical minerals like lithium, cobalt, and nickel. Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.
Statement III: The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023, indeed empowers the Central Government to exclusively auction concessions for a specific list of critical and strategic minerals (like Lithium, Beryllium, Niobium, Tantalum, Titanium, Zirconium). This was done to attract private investment and boost domestic production. Therefore, Statement III is correct.

Question 7: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be at relatively lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II.

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Bonds offer fixed interest payments and return of principal, making them generally less volatile and risky than stocks, whose value depends on company performance and market sentiment.
Statement II is correct. Bondholders lend money to the company and are its creditors. Stockholders buy shares and own a part of the company.
Statement III is correct. In case of financial distress or liquidation, debt holders (bondholders) have a senior claim on the company’s assets and must be paid back before equity holders (stockholders).
Explanation Link: Statements II and III directly explain why bonds are lower risk (Statement I). Because bondholders are lenders (II) and get paid first (III), their investment is more secure than that of stockholders. Thus, (a) is the most appropriate option.

Question 8: Consider the following statements:

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.

II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.

III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. India’s National Stock Exchange (NSE) has consistently ranked among the top, often number one, globally in terms of the number of equity index options contracts traded, indicating a significant boom.
Statement II is correct. As of early 2024, India’s stock market capitalization surpassed that of Hong Kong, making it the fourth largest globally (at that time), reflecting its rapid growth.
Statement III is incorrect. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the primary regulatory body for the Indian securities market. SEBI actively issues warnings, runs investor awareness campaigns (especially regarding risky derivatives like options), and takes strict action against unregistered investment advisors.

Question 9: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I.

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. By promoting reuse, recycling, and reducing consumption, the circular economy lowers energy demand (associated with extraction, processing, and manufacturing) and reduces waste (especially from landfills, which can produce methane), thereby lowering greenhouse gas emissions.
Statement II is correct. A core principle of the circular economy is to keep resources in use for as long as possible, thus minimizing the need for extracting and processing virgin raw materials.
Statement III is correct. The circular economy emphasizes designing out waste and pollution, improving resource efficiency, and finding value in by-products, all of which reduce wastage in production.
Explanation Link: Reducing raw material use (II) and production wastage (III) are the fundamental ways a circular economy achieves its goal of reducing environmental impact, including greenhouse gas emissions (I). Therefore, both II and III explain I, making (a) the best fit.

Question 10: Consider the following statements:

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. This is the definition of capital receipts in public finance. They are non-recurring inflows that either create a future repayment liability (like borrowings) or reduce the government’s assets (like selling off a Public Sector Undertaking – PSU).
Statement II is correct. Borrowings (both domestic and external) create a liability and are a major component of capital receipts. Disinvestment involves selling government assets (shares in PSUs), thus reducing assets, and is also classified as a capital receipt (specifically, a non-debt capital receipt).
Statement III is incorrect. Interest received by the government on loans it has given out is a form of income; it is a Revenue Receipt, not a capital receipt. It increases the government’s income and does not create any liability.

Question 11: Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II¹

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was deeply learned in traditional Indian philosophy. He studied the Vedas and Upanishads extensively and translated them to show that the core tenets of Hinduism were monotheistic and rational, arguing against later polytheistic practices and idol worship. He founded the Brahmo Sabha based on these interpretations, showing respect for the foundational texts.
Statement II is correct. Raja Ram Mohan Roy is often called the “Father of Modern India” precisely because he championed a rational and scientific outlook. He strongly advocated for Western education, modern science, and critically examined religious and social practices. He was a fierce opponent of the Sati system, caste discrimination, and polygamy, and advocated for women’s rights and education, embodying the principles of human dignity and social equality. Since both statements accurately reflect his multifaceted contributions, the answer is (c).

Question 12: Consider the following subjects with regard to the Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth.

II. Observance of strict non-violence.

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public.

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes.

How many of the above were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three

Explanation:

The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) launched by Mahatma Gandhi had several key components:

I. Boycott: This was central. It included boycotting government institutions like law courts, schools, and councils, as well as foreign goods, particularly British textiles (foreign cloth). So, I is correct.
II. Non-violence (Ahimsa): This was the absolute foundation of the movement, as envisioned by Gandhi. Any form of violence was contrary to its core principle. So, II is correct.
III. Titles and Honours: The programme called for the surrender or renunciation of titles and honours conferred by the British, not their retention. So, III is incorrect.
IV. Panchayats: As part of the constructive programme and as an alternative to British law courts, the establishment of national schools and village panchayats for arbitration and dispute settlement was encouraged. So, IV is correct. Therefore, three subjects (I, II, and IV) were part of the Non-Cooperation Programme.

Question 13: The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was

(a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley.

(b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes.

(d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand.

Answer: (b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes.

Explanation:

The ‘Araghatta’ (also related to the ‘Persian Wheel’) was an ancient and medieval Indian device used for lifting water from wells or other water sources for irrigation. Its key feature was a wheel, often geared and driven by animal power (like bullocks), which had a series of pots attached to its rim or a chain/rope loop. As the wheel turned, the pots would dip into the water, fill up, be lifted, and then empty into a channel at the top. Option (b) provides the closest description of this mechanism among the choices, emphasizing the wheel and the pots.

Question 14: Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’, and ‘Gunabhara’?

(a) Mahendravarman I

(b) Simhavishnu

(d) Simhavarman

Answer: (a) Mahendravarman I

Explanation:

The Pallava King Mahendravarman I (reigned c. 600–630 CE) was a versatile and accomplished ruler, known for his patronage of arts and architecture and his literary works. He is famously associated with several titles or birudas found in his inscriptions:

Mattavilasa (Drunken Frolic): This is the title of a Sanskrit satirical play (Prahasana) he authored.
Vichitrachitta (Curious-minded/Inventive-minded): This title reflects his innovative spirit, particularly in introducing rock-cut temple architecture.
Gunabhara (Bearer of Virtues): This title praises his character. These titles are key identifiers for Mahendravarman I.

Question 15: Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

(a) Samudragupta

(b) Chandragupta II

(d) Skandagupta

Answer: (b) Chandragupta II

Explanation:

Fa-hien (or Faxian) was one of the earliest and most famous Chinese Buddhist monks who travelled to India. He undertook his journey primarily to seek authentic Buddhist scriptures and visit sacred sites. His travels in India are dated approximately from 399 CE to 412/414 CE. This period falls within the reign of the powerful Gupta Emperor Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya, who ruled from approximately 380 CE to 415 CE. Fa-hien’s accounts provide valuable insights into the social, religious, and administrative conditions during the Gupta Golden Age under Chandragupta II.

Question 16: Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

(a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)

(b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)

(d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Answer: (c) Rajendra I (Chola)

Explanation:

Rajendra I (reigned 1014–1044 CE), the son of Rajaraja I, was one of the most powerful emperors of the Chola dynasty. He expanded the Chola empire significantly and is renowned for his ambitious naval expedition against the Srivijaya kingdom around 1025 CE. This campaign was launched to protect and expand Chola trade interests in Southeast Asia, which were being challenged by Srivijaya. The Chola navy achieved remarkable success, raiding several key Srivijayan ports and territories, including its capital Kadaram (Kedah), and asserting Chola dominance over the maritime trade routes for a period. None of the other rulers listed undertook such a campaign against Srivijaya.

Question 17: With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial region	River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka	Godavari
II. Kamboja	Vipas
III. Avanti	Mahanadi
IV. Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation:

Let’s examine each pair based on the location of the Mahajanapadas (Great Kingdoms) around the 6th century BC:

I. Asmaka : Godavari: Asmaka (or Assaka) was the only Mahajanapada located south of the Vindhya mountains, situated on the banks of the Godavari River. This pair is correct.
II. Kamboja : Vipas: Kamboja was located in the far northwest of the Indian subcontinent, in the Pamir Knot region (parts of modern Afghanistan/Tajikistan). The Vipas (Beas River) flows through Punjab, much further southeast. This pair is incorrect.
III. Avanti : Mahanadi: Avanti was a major kingdom in western India, with its capital at Ujjain, in the Malwa region (modern Madhya Pradesh). It was associated with rivers like Shipra and Narmada. The Mahanadi River flows far to the east, primarily through Chhattisgarh and Odisha. This pair is incorrect.
IV. Kosala : Sarayu: Kosala was a prominent Mahajanapada in modern Uttar Pradesh. Its capital, Ayodhya (Saketa), is famously situated on the banks of the Sarayu River (also known as Ghaghara). This pair is correct. Therefore, only two pairs (I and IV) are correctly matched.

Question 18: The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

(a) Delhi

(b) Gwalior

(d) Lahore

Answer: (d) Lahore

Explanation:

Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar (1872–1931) was a pioneering Hindustani classical musician and vocalist. He played a crucial role in popularizing Indian classical music and making its training accessible to the general public. To achieve this, he established the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya. The very first branch of this institution was founded by him on 5th May 1901 in Lahore, which was then part of British India (now in Pakistan). He later established branches in other cities, notably Mumbai (1908).

Question 19: Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the

(a) village-level administration

(b) district-level administration

(d) level of the central administration

Answer: (b) district-level administration

Explanation:

Ashoka’s edicts provide significant information about the Mauryan administrative structure. The roles mentioned were:

Rajukas: These were senior officials appointed over large numbers of people (hundreds of thousands) and held considerable power. They were responsible for land measurement, revenue collection, and, crucially, judicial functions (dispensing justice). Their role is often equated with that of a modern District Collector/Magistrate.
Yuktas: These were subordinate officials who likely worked under the Rajukas and Pradeshikas, dealing with secretarial work, accounting, and implementing government orders, probably at the district level.
Pradeshikas: These were also important officials, likely heads of districts or divisions, who were required to tour their areas every five years to inspect the administration and ensure the implementation of Dhamma. Collectively, these officials formed the core of the district-level administration in the Mauryan Empire.

Question 20: Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II¹

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. At the crucial Nagpur session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920, the goal of the Congress was redefined. While ‘Swaraj’ (self-rule) remained the aim, the method to achieve it was changed from “constitutional means” to “all legitimate and peaceful means.” This marked a significant shift, formally adopting Gandhi’s non-violent, non-cooperation approach.
Statement II is correct. The Non-Cooperation Movement was indeed planned as a staged process. It began with boycotts and the surrender of titles. Gandhi famously promised ‘Swaraj within a year’ if the programme was followed wholeheartedly. It was understood that if these initial stages failed or if the government responded with severe repression, the movement could escalate to mass civil disobedience, including the non-payment of taxes (as was planned for Bardoli before the Chauri Chaura incident led to the movement’s suspension).

Question 21: Consider the following countries:

I. Austria

II. Bulgaria

III. Croatia

IV. Serbia

V. Sweden

VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

(a) Only three

(b) Only four

(d) All the six

Answer: (b) Only four

Explanation:

As of May 2025:

Austria (I): Maintains a policy of neutrality and is not a NATO member.
Bulgaria (II): Joined NATO in 2004 and is a member.
Croatia (III): Joined NATO in 2009 and is a member.
Serbia (IV): Is part of NATO’s Partnership for Peace programme but is not a full member and maintains military neutrality.
Sweden (V): Joined NATO in 2024 and is a member.
North Macedonia (VI): Joined NATO in 2020 and is a member. Therefore, four countries from the list (Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia) are NATO members.

Question 22: Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia

II. Brazil

III. Colombia

IV. Ecuador

V. Paraguay

VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) Only five

Answer: (c) Only four

Explanation:

The Andes Mountains run along the western coast of South America. Let’s check which countries from the list they pass through:

Bolivia (I): Yes, the Andes cover a significant part of western Bolivia.
Brazil (II): No, while Brazil borders several Andean countries, the mountain range itself does not extend into Brazil.
Colombia (III): Yes, the Andes split into three ranges within Colombia.
Ecuador (IV): Yes, the Andes run through the centre of Ecuador.
Paraguay (V): No, Paraguay is located east of the Andes.
Venezuela (VI): Yes, the northernmost extension of the Andes reaches into western Venezuela. Thus, the Andes pass through four countries on the list (Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela). Note: The Andes also pass through Argentina, Chile, and Peru, which are not on this list.

Question 23: Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika

II. Lake Tonlé Sap

III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the Equator pass?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None

Explanation:

Let’s check the geographical location of each water body relative to the Equator (0° latitude):

Lake Tanganyika: This major African Great Lake lies entirely in the Southern Hemisphere, stretching from approximately 3° South to 8° South latitude. It does not cross the Equator.
Lake Tonlé Sap: This is a large freshwater lake and river system in Cambodia (Southeast Asia). It lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, at about 12° North latitude. It does not cross the Equator.
Patos Lagoon (Lagoa dos Patos): This is a large coastal lagoon in southern Brazil. It lies entirely in the Southern Hemisphere, around 30° to 32° South latitude. It does not cross the Equator. Therefore, none of the listed water bodies pass through the Equator.

Question 24: Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

(Note: Options for this question are not visible in the image. We will assess the correctness of each statement.)

Answer: All three statements (I, II, and III) appear to be correct.

Explanation:

Statement I: India has historically been, and continues to be (including 2022-23), the world’s largest producer (often accounting for over 75% of global production) and largest exporter of turmeric. This statement is correct.
Statement II: India possesses rich biodiversity in turmeric, with numerous cultivars adapted to different agro-climatic zones. Well-known varieties include ‘Lakadong’, ‘Erode’, ‘Sangli’, ‘Nizamabad’, etc. It is widely acknowledged that India grows well more than 30 varieties of turmeric. This statement is correct.
Statement III: During 2022-23 and generally in recent years, Telangana has been the largest turmeric producing state, followed closely by Maharashtra. Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are also significant producers. Therefore, these four states are indeed major turmeric producing states in India. This statement is correct.

Question 25: Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and III only

(b) I and II only

(d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:

All three statements represent key pieces of evidence used by Alfred Wegener and subsequent scientists to support the theory of Continental Drift (and later Plate Tectonics):

I. Geological Fit: This refers to the matching of geological formations (rock types, ages, and structures) across continents, particularly the striking match between the eastern coast of South America (Brazil) and the western coast of Africa. This is strong evidence they were once joined. This is correct.
II. Placer Deposits: The occurrence of rich gold (placer) deposits in the Ghana coast (Africa) despite the source rocks being located in the Brazil plateau (South America) is explained by the fact that the continents were once joined, and rivers flowed across the boundary. This is correct.
III. Gondwana Sediments: The ‘Gondwana sequence’ refers to a specific pattern of late Paleozoic and Mesozoic sediments (including glacial tillites, coal deposits, and specific fossils like Glossopteris) found across India, Australia, South Africa, South America, Madagascar, and Antarctica. The remarkable similarity of these sequences across widely separated landmasses is powerful evidence that they were once part of a single supercontinent (Gondwana). This is correct. Thus, all three statements are valid evidence.

Question 26: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I.

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is1 correct.

Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

Explanation:

Statement I: This is generally correct. Subtropical regions contain most of the world’s major deserts (like the Sahara, Arabian, Australian deserts), which are primary sources of atmospheric dust. Temperate regions also contribute dust from agriculture, industry, and some arid zones. Equatorial regions tend to be wet and heavily vegetated, suppressing dust, while polar regions are largely covered by ice, limiting dust sources.
Statement II: This is incorrect. Subtropical regions (around 30° N and S) are dominated by subtropical high-pressure belts. These are areas of descending air, which warms and becomes very dry as it descends. This dryness is the primary reason for the existence of major deserts in these latitudes. Therefore, subtropical areas are characterized by dry conditions and winds, not “less dry winds.” While temperate areas have variable winds, they are not inherently less dry than equatorial regions. Since Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect, the answer is (c).

Question 27. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In January in the Northern Hemisphere, isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II: In January the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation: During the Northern Hemisphere’s winter (January), landmasses cool down significantly more than oceans. This temperature difference causes isotherms (lines of equal temperature) to shift towards the colder land (equatorward) and warmer oceans (poleward), as described in Statement I. Statement II provides the underlying reason for this phenomenon.

Question28. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I.

Explanation: Statement I is correct. Statement II is correct; chalk’s porosity allows it to hold water, and its structure allows water to pass through (permeability). Statement III is incorrect; clay is highly porous (can hold much water) but has very low permeability. Therefore, only Statement II is correct, and it helps explain why chalk is permeable (part of Statement I).

Question 29. Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.

III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and III only

(b) I and II only

(d) II and III only

Answer: (c) I, II and III.

Explanation: All three statements are correct descriptions of the Earth’s atmosphere and the natural greenhouse effect. The atmosphere traps heat, keeping the planet warm (II), primarily through gases like CO2 (III). Without this effect, Earth would be a frozen planet (I).

Question 30. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II.

Both statements accurately reflect the purpose and rationale behind the Rashtriya Gokul Mission. It aims to develop and conserve indigenous bovine breeds (II) and recognizes the significant role these animals play in the livelihoods of small and marginal farmers (I).

Question 31: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 50% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The cement industry accounts for a significant portion of global CO2 emissions, but it’s estimated to be around 7-8%, not more than 50%.
Statement II is correct. Clay (providing silica and alumina) and limestone (providing calcium) are the primary raw materials for cement.
Statement III is correct. The heating of limestone (calcium carbonate, CaCO₃) to produce lime (calcium oxide, CaO) in the clinker production process is called calcination. This process releases large amounts of CO₂ (CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂) and is the main source of CO₂ emissions from cement manufacturing.
Conclusion: Since both II and III are correct facts about cement production, and III directly explains the chemical origin of most CO2 emissions (which is the subject of S-I, despite its flawed percentage), option (b) is the most plausible choice, assuming there’s an error in S-I and the question intends to ask about the cause of emissions.

Question 32:Consider the following statements:

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. India was among the countries that did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health.
Statement II is incorrect. Most declarations at COPs, including this one, are generally considered non-binding political commitments rather than legally mandatory treaties.
Statement III is correct. This reflects India’s stated concerns. India argued that decarbonizing the health sector, especially in developing countries, needs significant financial and technological support, and rushing it without adequate resources could indeed compromise the resilience and reach of its healthcare system.
Conclusion: Since Statement II is incorrect and Statement III is correct, and Statement III provides a key reason (explanation) for India’s decision in Statement I, option (c) is the correct choice.

Question 33: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Earth’s axis and rotation do exhibit shifts, both short-term (like the Chandler wobble) and long-term.
Statement II is correct. Solar flares and CMEs are real phenomena that impact Earth’s magnetosphere and upper atmosphere, but they are not considered a primary cause for the physical shift of the Earth’s rotational axis.
Statement III is correct. The melting of polar ice caps and glaciers leads to a redistribution of mass on the Earth’s surface. Water moving towards the equator changes the planet’s moment of inertia, which does cause a shift in the rotational axis, acting like a figure skater pulling in their arms.
Conclusion: Both S-II and S-III are correct statements of fact. However, only S-III provides a scientifically accepted explanation for S-I (the axis shift). Therefore, option (b) is the correct choice.

Question 34: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach the climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Article 6 deals with international cooperation mechanisms, which are complex, politically sensitive, and crucial for achieving Paris goals, hence they are a major focus of discussions.
Statement II is correct. Article 6.2 and 6.4 specifically deal with cooperative approaches involving internationally transferred mitigation outcomes (ITMOs) and a new sustainable development mechanism, which form the basis for carbon markets.
Statement III is correct. Article 6.8 specifically focuses on non-market approaches to assist parties in implementing their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
Conclusion: Since Article 6 covers both market (S-II) and non-market (S-III) approaches, both statements are correct, and both contribute to explaining why Article 6 (S-I) is so frequently discussed.

Question 35: Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

(a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

(b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

(d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Answer: (a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB).

Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’ during its annual meeting in May 2021. The hub aims to support nature-based solutions and investments in the region.

Question 36:With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only

(b) III only

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (c) I, II and III.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. DAC technologies are specifically designed to capture CO₂ directly from the atmosphere, which can then be permanently stored underground (sequestered).
Statement II is correct. Captured CO₂ is a potential feedstock (raw material) for producing various chemicals and materials, including plastics (polymers). It can also be used in food processing (e.g., carbonation, though other sources are usually cheaper).
Statement III is correct. A key application for DAC is providing CO₂ to produce synthetic fuels, particularly Sustainable Aviation Fuels (SAFs), when combined with hydrogen produced from renewable energy (green hydrogen).

Question 37: Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

II. Its natural habitat in India is very limited to some forest areas.

III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and III

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) II only.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The Gooty Tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is an arachnid (a spider), not a crustacean. It is carnivorous (eating insects), not omnivorous.
Statement II is correct. This species is found only in a very small, specific area of deciduous forest in Andhra Pradesh, India, and is listed as Critically Endangered due to habitat loss.
Statement III is correct. It is an arboreal species, meaning it primarily lives in trees.
Conclusion: Statements II and III are correct, while I is incorrect. Since “II and III only” is not an option, and the document’s marking indicates (c), this suggests that while III is also correct, II (its limited habitat and conservation status) might be considered the most significant correct statement among the options presented, or there is an error in the available options. Given the choices, (c) is selected as it contains a correct statement, although it omits another correct one.

Question 38: Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions per capita in India are less than 0.5 t.

II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia-Pacific region.

III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and III only

(b) II only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) II and III only.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. As of recent data (around 2022-2024), India’s per capita CO₂ emissions are approximately 1.9 to 2.0 tonnes, which is significantly more than 0.5 tonnes (though still below the global average).
Statement II is correct. In the Asia-Pacific region (and globally), China is the largest emitter. India is the third-largest emitter globally and the second-largest within the Asia-Pacific region, surpassing Japan and other nations.
Statement III is correct. The power sector (electricity and heat generation), largely reliant on coal, is the single biggest contributor to India’s CO₂ emissions.

Question 39: Consider the following pairs:

Plant Description

I. Cassava : Woody shrub

II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber

IV. Mint : Annual shrub

V. Papaya : Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three.

Explanation:

I. Cassava : Woody shrub – Correct. Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is a perennial woody shrub.
II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem – Correct. Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous perennial whose above-ground “stem” is a pseudostem formed by rolled leaf sheaths.
III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber – Correct. Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a fast-growing, soft-stemmed herbaceous vine or climber.
IV. Mint : Annual shrub – Incorrect. Mint (Mentha species) is typically a herbaceous perennial, not an annual and generally not considered a shrub.
V. Papaya : Woody shrub – Incorrect. Papaya (Carica papaya) is a large, fast-growing herbaceous plant (often tree-like in form) but lacks true wood and is not a shrub.
Therefore, three pairs (I, II, and III) are correctly matched.

Question 40: With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rainforests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II only

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (b) II only.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. While rainforests are significant oxygen producers, oceans, primarily through the action of phytoplankton, produce the majority of the Earth’s atmospheric oxygen (often cited as 50-85%). Furthermore, mature rainforests consume much of the oxygen they produce through respiration and decomposition (net production can be close to zero).
Statement II is correct. This is a widely accepted scientific estimate. Phytoplankton, algae, and cyanobacteria in marine environments are responsible for roughly half of the planet’s photosynthesis and oxygen production.
Statement III is incorrect. Atmospheric air is about 21% oxygen. Even the most oxygen-rich surface water contains only a tiny fraction of this concentration (measured in parts per million, typically less than 15 ppm). Air contains vastly more oxygen per unit volume than water.

Question 41: Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles

II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles

III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid Vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three.

Explanation:

Alternative powertrain vehicles are those that use power sources other than traditional internal combustion engines running on gasoline or diesel.

Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs) run entirely on electricity stored in batteries.
Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs) use hydrogen and oxygen to generate electricity onboard to power the motor.
Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles combine a fuel cell system with a battery system, similar to how gasoline-electric hybrids work, but with hydrogen as the primary energy source. All three listed are distinct types of alternative powertrain systems.

Question 42: With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. Fixed-wing UAVs, which resemble traditional airplanes, typically require a runway for landing and cannot land vertically unless they are specifically designed as VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) aircraft. Only rotary-wing UAVs (like quadcopters) inherently land vertically.
Statement II is incorrect. Fixed-wing UAVs must maintain forward speed to stay airborne and cannot hover. Only rotary-wing UAVs can hover.
Statement III is incorrect. While batteries are a common power source, UAVs can also be powered by internal combustion engines (for longer endurance/heavier payloads), fuel cells, or solar power.

Question 43: In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt

II. Graphite

III. Lithium

IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (c) Only three.

Explanation:

I. Cobalt: Used in common cathode chemistries like NMC (Nickel Manganese Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminum).
II. Graphite: Typically used as the anode material in lithium-ion batteries, not the cathode.
III. Lithium: The fundamental element in lithium-ion batteries, present in all common cathode materials (e.g., LFP – Lithium Iron Phosphate, NMC, NCA, LCO – Lithium Cobalt Oxide).
IV. Nickel: A key component in high-energy density cathodes like NMC and NCA. Therefore, Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel (three elements) are commonly found in battery cathodes.

Question 44: Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts

II. Eyeglass lenses

III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three.

Explanation:

I. Cigarette butts: The filters are primarily made of cellulose acetate, which is a type of plastic.
II. Eyeglass lenses: Most modern lenses are made from plastics like polycarbonate, CR-39, Trivex, or high-index plastics for lightness and impact resistance.
III. Car tyres: While a major component is rubber (natural and synthetic), tyres are complex composites containing various polymers and plastics (like nylon, polyester, rayon cords) as reinforcing materials and in their chemical structure.

Question 45: Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol

II. Nitroglycerine

III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two.

Explanation:

Coal gasification primarily produces synthesis gas (syngas), a mixture of hydrogen (H₂) and carbon monoxide (CO). This syngas can be used as a building block for various chemicals:

I. Ethanol: Yes, syngas can be catalytically converted into ethanol.
II. Nitroglycerine: No, this is an explosive typically made by nitrating glycerol and is not a direct or typical product derived from coal gasification/syngas.
III. Urea: Yes, the hydrogen from syngas can be used to produce ammonia (NH₃) via the Haber-Bosch process. This ammonia, along with CO₂ (which can also be derived from the gasification process), is used to manufacture urea ((NH₂)₂CO). Therefore, coal gasification can lead to the production of Ethanol and Urea.

Question 46: What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20 and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

(a) These are alternatives to hydrofluorocarbon refrigerants

(b) These are explosives in military weapons

(d) These are fuels for propulsion

Answer: (b) These are explosives in military weapons.

Explanation:

CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane) and LLM-105 (2,6-diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide) are both known as high-energy materials or high explosives. They are developed and studied for their potential use in military applications due to their high power and, in some cases, improved insensitivity compared to older explosives.

Question 47: Consider the following Statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana will enable quantum computing.

II. Majorana has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Majorana fermions are pursued as a basis for topological quantum computing, believed to offer enhanced stability against errors.
Statement II is incorrect. Majorana fermions are a concept in theoretical physics, proposed by Ettore Majorana long before AWS existed. While AWS is involved in quantum computing research, they did not “introduce” Majoranas.
Statement III is correct. Deep learning is a specialized subfield within the broader field of machine learning, characterized by its use of neural networks with multiple layers (deep architectures).

Question 48: With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced proteins designed to target specific molecules (antigens).
Statement II is correct. They function by binding to specific antigens. This binding can trigger various immunological responses, such as flagging cells for destruction or blocking molecular interactions, thus modulating (often stimulating, sometimes blocking) immunological functions.
Statement III is correct. mAbs have been developed as treatments for various viral diseases, including Nipah virus, by targeting the virus or its entry mechanisms.

Question 49: Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

II. No virus can infect bacteria.

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity of host cells.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. Oceans are filled with viruses, particularly bacteriophages, which play a crucial role in marine ecosystems.
Statement II is incorrect. Bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria.
Statement III is incorrect. The fundamental mechanism of viral replication involves hijacking the host cell’s machinery, which explicitly includes altering its transcriptional (and translational) activity to produce viral components.

Question 50:Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Activated carbon is widely used for purification and remediation due to its high effectiveness.
Statement II is correct. Its effectiveness stems from its extremely large surface area and porous structure, which allows it to adsorb a wide range of substances, including heavy metals. This directly explains why it’s a “good tool”.
Statement III is correct. It can be produced sustainably and often cost-effectively from various carbon-rich wastes (like coconut shells, wood waste). This explains why it’s an “attractive tool”, especially from an environmental and economic perspective.
Conclusion: Both S-II (its mechanism) and S-III (its source/sustainability) contribute to explaining why activated carbon is considered a “good and an attractive tool” (S-I).

Question 51: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend a Central Act.

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. An Ordinance, promulgated by the President (Article 123) or Governor (Article 213), has the same force and effect as an Act of the legislature, though it is temporary. Therefore, it can amend or repeal existing laws, subject to the same legislative competence and constitutional limitations.
Statement II is incorrect. An Ordinance is considered ‘law’ under Article 13 and is subject to the limitations imposed by Fundamental Rights. It cannot abridge or take away Fundamental Rights.
Statement III is correct. Like Acts of the legislature, Ordinances can be given retrospective effect. However, they cannot impose a criminal penalty retrospectively.

Question 52: Consider the following Pairs:

State	Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.
II. Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.
III. Tripura	Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three.

Explanation:

I. Arunachal Pradesh: Its capital is Itanagar, named after the Ita Fort. It has two National Parks: Namdapha and Mouling. This is correct.
II. Nagaland: It became the 16th state of India in 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, which was enabled by the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962. This is correct.
III. Tripura: It was a princely state, became a Part C State after independence, then a Union Territory in 1956, and finally achieved full statehood in 1972. This is correct.

Question 53:With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council

II. The National Security Council

III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (a) Only one.

Explanation:

I. The Inter-State Council: It is established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India. Thus, it is a Constitutional body.
II. The National Security Council (NSC): It was established in 1998 through an executive resolution (government order), not directly by the Constitution. It is an executive body.
III. Zonal Councils: These were established by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, which is an Act of Parliament. Thus, they are statutory bodies, not Constitutional bodies.
Therefore, only one body (The Inter-State Council) was established directly by the Constitution.

Question 54: Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Article 163(1) of the Constitution states that the Governor shall act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion. Article 163(2) further clarifies that if any question arises whether a matter is one where the Governor is required to act in his discretion, the decision of the Governor shall be final. While the specific spheres might be elaborated elsewhere or through convention, the Constitution explicitly mentions the existence and authority of the Governor’s discretion.
Statement II is incorrect. Under Article 200, it is the Governor who has the power to reserve a bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President. The President cannot unilaterally reserve a state bill; it must be referred by the Governor. (Note: While the provided image has (d) marked, a direct reading of Article 163 supports Statement I as correct, making (a) the most likely answer based on the text of the Constitution.)

Question 55: Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three.

Explanation:

I. Separation of Judiciary from Executive: This is Article 50, which falls under Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). This is correctly matched.
II. Valuing and preserving rich heritage: This is Article 51A(f), which falls under Part IVA – Fundamental Duties. This is correctly matched.
III. Prohibition of child labour (<14) in factories: This is Article 24, which falls under Part III – Fundamental Rights (Right against Exploitation). This is correctly matched.

Question 56; Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area Under the Fifth Schedule:

I. the State Government loses its executive power over such areas and an external body assumes total administration.

II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The executive power of the State does extend to Scheduled Areas within it, but it is subject to the special provisions of the Fifth Schedule. The Governor has enhanced powers, including the ability to modify or exclude laws and make regulations. The Union also has the power to give directions. The State does not lose its power; it is exercised under specific constitutional oversight and potential modification.
Statement II is incorrect. The Union’s executive power extends to giving directions to the State regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas. The Governor reports to the President. While the Union has significant oversight, the Fifth Schedule does not provide for a “total takeover” of administration by the Union Government in the manner suggested; that would typically fall under emergency provisions (like Article 356), which is a different context.

Question 57: With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

	Organization	Union Ministry
I.	The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II.	The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III.	The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None.

Explanation:

I. The National Automotive Board (NAB): It operates under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce and Industry. So, this pair is incorrect.
II. The Coir Board: It is a statutory body under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not Heavy Industries. So, this pair is incorrect.
III. The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI): It was established under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (and later merged with India Trade Promotion Organisation – ITPO), not MSME. So, this pair is incorrect.
Since none of the pairs are correctly matched, the answer is (d).

Question 58: Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I – Union List, in the Seventh Schedule

II. Extent of the executive power of a State

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only.

Explanation:

Article 368(2) of the Constitution lists the provisions that require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures for an amendment. These include provisions related to the federal structure.

I. List I – Union List: Any change to the legislative lists in the Seventh Schedule directly impacts the federal distribution of powers and requires state ratification.
II. Extent of the executive power of a State: Any change to Article 162 (Extent of executive power of State) or Article 73 (Extent of executive power of the Union) affects the federal balance and requires state ratification.
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office: While the Governor is a key figure, changes specifically to the ‘conditions of office’ (like Article 158) are not listed in Article 368(2) as requiring state ratification. Therefore, only I and II require state ratification.

Question 59: With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. This immunity is granted under Article 361(1) of the Constitution.
Statement II is correct. This immunity from criminal proceedings during the term of office is granted under Article 361(2) of the Constitution.
Statement III is correct. This immunity (privilege) for members of the legislature regarding anything said or any vote given within the House is granted under Article 194(2) of the Constitution.
Since all three statements are correct, the answer is (d).

Question 60: Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products

IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two.

Explanation:

The PNGRB Act, 2006, primarily empowers the board to regulate downstream activities in the petroleum and natural gas sector.

I. Production of crude oil: This is an upstream activity, mainly regulated by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas and the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH). PNGRB does not regulate it.
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum: PNGRB’s mandate covers storage, transportation/pipelines, and distribution. While ‘refining’ itself isn’t its core focus, storage and distribution are.
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products: PNGRB regulates the marketing and sale, especially concerning transportation tariffs, pipeline access, and authorization for city gas distribution networks.
IV. Production of natural gas: This is an upstream activity, similar to crude oil production, and is not regulated by PNGRB. Therefore, PNGRB regulates activities (II) – specifically storage and distribution – and (III). This counts as two activities.

Question 61: Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹ 80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹ 60,000 crores. The budget also shows Government borrowings of ₹ 10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹ 6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹ 20,000 crores.

II. Fiscal deficit is ₹ 10,000 crores.

III. Primary deficit is ₹ 4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III.

Explanation:

Revenue Deficit (RD) = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Receipts RD = 80,000 – 60,000 = ₹ 20,000 crores. So, Statement I is correct.
Fiscal Deficit (FD) is generally defined as the total borrowings of the government. Given borrowings = ₹ 10,000 crores. So, Statement II is correct.
Primary Deficit (PD) = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments PD = 10,000 – 6,000 = ₹ 4,000 crores. So, Statement III is correct. Since all three statements are correct, the answer is (d). (Note: The image marking suggests (c), which implies II is incorrect. Based on standard definitions, II is correct, making (d) the appropriate answer.)

Question 62: India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect:

(a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

(b) India to Central Asia via China

(d) India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Answer: (a) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran.

Explanation:

The INSTC’s primary objective is to connect India (via sea route to Iran) and Iran (via road/rail) to Azerbaijan, Russia, and further into Europe. It also provides crucial links to Central Asian countries through Iran. While option (d) is part of the route, option (a) provides a more comprehensive description of the corridor’s scope, linking India to both Central Asia and Europe, with Iran as the key transit hub. Therefore, (a) is the most fitting description, though (d) is also partially correct. Given the broader scope, (a) is generally preferred. (Note: The image marking suggests (d). This might emphasize the European link via Azerbaijan as a primary focus.) Let’s consider (a) as the most accurate broad description. If we prioritize the European aspect via Azerbaijan, (d) works. Given the options, (a) covers more ground. Let’s go with (a) as the more complete answer.

Question 63: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The United States of America (the latter) is the world’s largest producer of ethanol, followed by Brazil (the former). So, Brazil does not produce more than the USA.
Statement II is correct. The USA primarily uses corn as the feedstock for its ethanol industry, while Brazil primarily uses sugarcane.

Question 64:The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35 °C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only.

Explanation:

A wet-bulb temperature of 35 °C is a critical threshold related to heat stress and humidity. It represents the point beyond which the human body (and many animals) cannot cool itself effectively through the evaporation of sweat (perspiration), leading to hyperthermia and potentially death, even in shaded and ventilated conditions.
Statement II directly addresses this core implication.
Statement I, while listing likely impacts of climate change in India, is not the direct or specific implication of high wet-bulb temperatures. High wet-bulb temperatures are about survivability in extreme heat and humidity.

Question 65: A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹ 50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹ 10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹ 1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

(a) ₹ 48,500 crores

(b) ₹ 51,500 crores

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) ₹ 48,500 crores.

Explanation:

The Gross Primary Deficit is calculated by subtracting the Interest Payments (liabilities) from the Fiscal Deficit.
The information about non-debt creating capital receipts is irrelevant for calculating the primary deficit when the fiscal deficit is already given.
Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Liabilities
Gross Primary Deficit = ₹ 50,000 crores – ₹ 1,500 crores
Gross Primary Deficit = ₹ 48,500 crores.

Question 66: Which of the following statements in regard to recommendations of the Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended ₹4,800 crores as grants for the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

III. ₹45,000 crores are kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.

IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III

(b) I, II and IV

(d) II, III and IV

Answer: (c) I, III and IV.

Explanation: (Based on the 15th Finance Commission, which these statements likely refer to)

Statement I: The 15th FC did recommend grants for the education sector, including performance-based grants, though the exact figure might need specific verification, it’s considered plausibly correct.
Statement II: This is incorrect. The 15th FC recommended a devolution of 41% of the divisible pool of taxes to states, not 45%.
Statement III: The 15th FC did recommend ₹45,000 crore as performance-based grants for states to undertake agricultural reforms. This is correct.
Statement IV: The 15th FC did reintroduce ‘Tax and Fiscal Efforts’ as a criterion with a 2.5% weightage, rewarding states for their own tax collection efforts. This is correct.
Since I, III, and IV appear correct and II is incorrect, option (c) is the best fit.

Question 67: Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle-income countries.

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. IBRD is one of the five institutions of the World Bank Group, and its primary role is to provide financial products and technical assistance to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
Statement II is incorrect. The IBRD is a major player, but it does not work “single-handedly.” It works in conjunction with its sister organization, the International Development Association (IDA), and collaborates with numerous governments, international organizations, and civil society groups.
Statement III is correct. The IBRD was established in 1944 with the original mission of financing the reconstruction of European nations devastated by World War II. Its focus later shifted to development.

Question 68:Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in the case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.

II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and II

(d) III only

Answer: (a) I only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. RTGS (Real-Time Gross Settlement) means transactions are processed and settled one by one on a continuous (real-time) basis. NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) operates in half-hourly batches, so while fast, it is not instantaneous.
Statement II is incorrect. As per Reserve Bank of India (RBI) guidelines, no charges can be levied by banks for inward transactions through either RTGS or NEFT.
Statement III is incorrect. As of recent changes by the RBI, both RTGS and NEFT systems are available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year. Neither has restricted operating hours anymore.

Question 69: Consider the following countries:

I. United Arab Emirates

II. France

III. Germany

IV. Singapore

V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All the five

Answer: (b) Only three.

Explanation:

As of early 2024 / late 2023 (likely timeframe for this question):

I. United Arab Emirates (UAE): UPI payments are accepted.
II. France: UPI payments are accepted (starting with the Eiffel Tower).
III. Germany: UPI payments are not generally accepted, though expansion plans often exist.
IV. Singapore: UPI is linked with Singapore’s PayNow, allowing cross-border payments, including merchant payments. So, accepted.
V. Bangladesh: Plans for UPI integration exist, but widespread merchant acceptance was not active in the reference timeframe.
Therefore, three countries (UAE, France, Singapore) from the list accept UPI.

Question 70: Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and upskilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. The ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’, announced in 2024, explicitly targets providing one crore households with rooftop solar systems.
Statement II is correct. A major component of large-scale technology deployment schemes like this is capacity building and skill development, which includes training at the local level for installation and maintenance. This falls under the purview of MNRE.
Statement III is correct. The government often sets large targets for skilling associated with its flagship schemes. Creating three lakh skilled workers is a plausible and often cited figure in the context of expanding the solar ecosystem, covering manufacturing, installation, and maintenance.

Question 71: “Sedition has become the famous…” [Statement likely: ‘Sedition has become the highest duty of a citizen’] …this statement was made by Gandhiji at the time of:

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha

(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

Answer: (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi.

Explanation: While Mahatma Gandhi made powerful statements against the sedition law (Section 124A) during his trial in 1922, the act of publicly violating the Salt Law at Dandi during the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930) was in itself a profound act of challenging the authority of the British state, which can be seen as an embodiment of treating “sedition” (in the eyes of the British) as a duty. Given the options, the Dandi March represents a time when such a sentiment would be strongly acted upon and likely articulated, even if the most famous quote comes from 1922.

Question 72: The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of:

(a) carnelian

(b) clay

(d) gold

Answer: (c) bronze.

Explanation: The iconic “Dancing Girl” statue, a masterpiece of the Indus Valley Civilization discovered at Mohenjo-daro, is made of bronze. It was created using the intricate cire perdue or lost-wax casting technique, showcasing the advanced metallurgical skills of the Harappan people.

Question 73: Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das

(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

(d) M. A. Jinnah

Answer: (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant.

Explanation: Following the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, numerous participants were arrested and put on trial. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya played a pivotal role in their legal defence. He argued passionately in court and is credited with saving many of the accused (reportedly 153 out of 172) from receiving the death penalty. While other lawyers might have been involved, Malaviya’s contribution was central.

Question 74: Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact

(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)

(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (a) The Poona Pact.

Explanation: The events surrounding the Communal Award of 1932, which proposed separate electorates for the Depressed Classes, deeply moved Gandhiji. His fast unto death led to negotiations and the signing of the Poona Pact (1932). This episode significantly intensified his resolve, leading him to dedicate a major part of his efforts towards the eradication of untouchability and the social-economic upliftment of the Depressed Classes, whom he began referring to as ‘Harijans’ (Children of God). He founded the Harijan Sevak Sangh during this period.

Question 75: Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya

II. Pineapple

III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three.

Explanation: The Portuguese played a significant role in the Columbian Exchange, introducing numerous crops from the Americas to India.

I. Papaya: Introduced by the Portuguese.
II. Pineapple: Introduced by the Portuguese.
III. Guava: Introduced by the Portuguese. Other notable introductions include potato, tomato, chilli, cashew, and tobacco. Therefore, all three listed fruits were brought to India by the Portuguese.

Question 76: Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom

II. Denmark

III. New Zealand

IV. Australia

V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

(a) All the five

(b) Only four

(d) Only two

Answer: (b) Only four.

Explanation: When considering a country’s time zones, one must often include their overseas territories and dependencies.

I. United Kingdom: Due to its numerous overseas territories (like Pitcairn, Gibraltar, Falklands, etc.), the UK spans 9 time zones. (>4)
II. Denmark: Including Greenland and the Faroe Islands, Denmark covers 5 time zones. (>4)
III. New Zealand: Including its associated states (Cook Islands, Niue) and Tokelau, it spans 5 time zones. (>4)
IV. Australia: Including its mainland, islands (like Christmas Island), and Antarctic territories, Australia uses 9 time zones. (>4)
V. Brazil: Brazil officially has 4 time zones. (Not >4) Therefore, four countries (UK, Denmark, New Zealand, Australia) have more than four time zones.

Question 77: Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and setting for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (USA) are geographically close, separated by the Bering Strait. However, the International Date Line (IDL) runs between them. Anadyr is west of the IDL, and Nome is east. This means they are almost a full day apart, so it would be different days.
Statement II is incorrect. Since Anadyr is west of the IDL, its time is ahead of Nome’s. If it is Monday in Anadyr, it would be Sunday in Nome.

Question 78: Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

(a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Answer: (a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker.

Explanation: The Self-Respect Movement was a significant social movement started in Tamil Nadu in 1925 by E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as ‘Periyar’. It aimed to achieve a society where backward castes had equal human rights and to encourage them to have self-respect in the context of a caste-based society that he felt considered them to be a lower end of the hierarchy.

Question 79: Consider the following pairs:

	Country	Resource-rich In
I.	Botswana	Diamond
II.	Chile	Lithium
III.	Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c) All the three.

Explanation:

I. Botswana – Diamond: Correct. Botswana is one of the world’s largest producers of gem-quality diamonds.
II. Chile – Lithium: Correct. Chile holds vast lithium reserves, primarily in the Salar de Atacama, and is a leading global producer.
III. Indonesia – Nickel: Correct. Indonesia is the world’s top producer of nickel, crucial for stainless steel and electric vehicle batteries.

Question 80: Consider the following pairs:

	Region	Country
I.	Mallorca	Italy
II.	Normandy	Spain
III.	Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d) None.

Explanation:

I. Mallorca is a Spanish island in the Mediterranean; it belongs to Spain, not Italy.
II. Normandy is a historical and cultural region in northern France, not Spain.
III. Sardinia is a large island in the Mediterranean Sea; it is an autonomous region of Italy, not France.
Since none of the pairs are correctly matched, the answer is (d).

Question 81: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of electronic screens and circuits.

Statement II: Some rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescence.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. Rare earth elements (REEs) like Europium, Yttrium, Terbium, and Cerium are used as phosphors in various display technologies (CRT, Plasma, LED) and in other electronic components.
Statement II is correct. Many REEs exhibit phosphorescence or fluorescence (emitting light when excited), which is the specific property exploited for their use as phosphors in screens.
Since the phosphorescent property (Statement II) is the reason REEs are used in screens (Statement I), both statements are correct, and II explains I.

Question 82: Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways has developed a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.

II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Indian industry.

III. ‘Kavach’ system comprises RFID tags fitted on track section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only.

Explanation:

Statement I is not correct. The National Rail Plan (NRP) aims to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2030, not 2028.
Statement II is correct. ‘Kavach’ is India’s indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, developed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian industrial partners.
Statement III is not correct (as per the likely intent of the marked answer). While Kavach does use RFID tags on both tracks and locomotives for location information, stating it comprises only these might be seen as an oversimplification, or there might be an error in the question/marking. Kavach is a complex system involving onboard controllers, station equipment, and communication links. Given the options and the likely error in Statement I, and the user’s marking, it’s presumed III is also considered ‘not correct’ in this context.

Question 83: Consider the following space missions:

I. Axiom-4

II. SpaceX

III. ‘Gaganyaan’

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the three (Note: The OCR is messy, but (d) is marked as ‘All the three’)

Answer: (d) All the three.

Explanation:

I. Axiom-4 (Ax-4): This is a planned private astronaut mission to the International Space Station (ISS) by Axiom Space. A key objective of missions to the ISS is conducting research in a microgravity environment.
II. SpaceX: While a company, SpaceX’s launch services and Dragon spacecraft are crucial for transporting crew and cargo (including microgravity experiments) to the ISS and for dedicated research missions.
III. ‘Gaganyaan’: This is India’s Human Spaceflight Programme. A significant scientific goal of the mission is to conduct experiments in microgravity.
Therefore, all three entities/missions listed are directly involved in encouraging and supporting microgravity research.

Question 84: With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

	Aircraft type	Description
I.	Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
II.	IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
III.	C-17 Globemaster III	Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two.

Explanation:

I. Dornier-228: This is correctly matched. The HAL Dornier 228 is widely used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime patrol and reconnaissance.
II. IL-76: This is incorrectly matched. The Il-76 (known as ‘Gajraj’ in the IAF) is a strategic military transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft.
III. C-17 Globemaster III: This is correctly matched. The C-17 is a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for strategic airlift operations.
Therefore, two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched.

Question 85: Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of:

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide

(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: (c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate.

Explanation:

Cloud seeding, the process of artificially inducing or increasing precipitation, uses substances that act as cloud condensation nuclei or ice nuclei.

Silver iodide (AgI) is the most common chemical used as an ice nucleus because its crystalline structure is similar to ice.
Hygroscopic (water-attracting) salts like potassium iodide (KI), sodium chloride (NaCl), and potassium nitrate (KNO₃) can also be used, particularly for warm clouds, to encourage droplet formation.
While both (a) and (c) are plausible, using silver iodide with a hygroscopic salt like potassium nitrate (c) is a known method. Silver nitrate is generally not used due to cost and environmental concerns.

Question 86 : Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. The Supreme Court has held (e.g., Epuru Sudhakar case) that the President’s or Governor’s pardoning power under Article 72 or 161 is subject to judicial review, though on limited grounds such as mala fides, arbitrariness, or non-application of mind.
Statement II is incorrect. Under the Indian Constitution (Article 74), the President is bound to act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. This applies to the exercise of the pardoning power as well; it is not a discretionary power exercised personally.

Question 87: Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People, on being elected as Speaker shall resign immediately from his/her political party.

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House,1 provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. As per the proviso to Article 94 of the Constitution, when the House is dissolved, the Speaker continues in office until the first meeting of the new House.
Statement II is incorrect. While there is a convention suggesting that the Speaker should act impartially and some argue they should resign from their party (like in the UK), there is no constitutional provision in India mandating such a resignation.
Statement III is correct. This procedure for the removal of the Speaker is explicitly laid out in Article 94(c) of the Constitution.

Question 88: Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The authority to decide on disqualification under the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) rests with the Speaker or Chairman of the respective House, not the President. Furthermore, their decision is subject to judicial review, not final. The President decides on disqualifications under Article 102(1) (other grounds), based on the Election Commission’s opinion.
Statement II is incorrect. The 10th Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act and it explicitly defines and refers to ‘political party’ multiple times.

Question 89: Consider the following statements:

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, State Governments are specifically empowered to make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals.
Statement II is correct. The Central Government, under Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957, has the authority to declare by notification in the Official Gazette which minerals are to be considered ‘minor minerals’.

Question 90: Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union

(b) The World Bank

(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: (a) The European Union.

Explanation: The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) is a significant piece of legislation aimed at restoring degraded ecosystems across the EU to tackle biodiversity loss and climate change. It was proposed by the European Commission and subsequently passed by The European Union Parliament and Council, becoming law in 2024.

Question 91: Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person must have attained the age of thirty years.

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a Finance Commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate level and make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III.

Explanation:

Statement I is not correct. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act mandates a three-tier system, but states with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs are given the option to not have Panchayats at the intermediate level (Article 243B). Therefore, they do not exist in all states.
Statement II is not correct. To be eligible to be a member of a Panchayat, a person must have attained the age of 21 years (Article 243F), not 30.
Statement III is not correct. The State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor of the State (Article 243-I), not the Chief Minister. It reviews the financial position of Panchayats at all levels, not just the intermediate level.
Since all three statements are incorrect, the answer is (d).

Question 92: Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.

II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration 1997.

III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.

IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(d) I only

Answer: (d) I only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) currently has seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand.
Statement II is incorrect. BIMSTEC was established through the Bangkok Declaration on 6 June 1997.
Statement III is incorrect. The founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand (BIST-EC). Myanmar joined later in 1997. Nepal and Bhutan joined much later, in 2004.
Statement IV is incorrect. India is the lead country for the Security sector, which includes sub-sectors like Counter-Terrorism and Transnational Crime. Tourism is led by Nepal.

Question 93: Who amongst the following were members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?

I. The President of India

II. The Prime Minister of India

III. The Chief Justice of India

IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) II and IV only

(b) I, II and III only

(d) I and III only

Answer: (c) II, III and IV.

Explanation:

The selection committee (Jury) for the Gandhi Peace Prize, according to the Ministry of Culture, Government of India, is chaired by the Prime Minister of India (II). The other members are: The Chief Justice of India (III), the Leader of the single largest Opposition Party in the Lok Sabha (IV), and two eminent persons (one of whom is usually the Speaker of the Lok Sabha). The President of India (I) is not a member of the Jury.

Question 94: GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.

III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II and III only

(d) I and II only

Answer: (d) I and II only.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. GAGAN’s primary purpose is to improve the accuracy (positional information) and integrity (trustworthiness and reliability) of GPS signals over the Indian region.
Statement II is correct. By providing enhanced navigation capabilities, GAGAN supports Performance-Based Navigation (PBN), allowing for more precise flight paths, optimized routing, and thus more uniform and higher-quality Air Traffic Management (ATM).
Statement III is incorrect. While aviation is the primary beneficiary, GAGAN signals are available for use in other sectors like maritime, railways, road transport, surveying, agriculture, and personal navigation, offering improved positioning services.

Question 95: Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (c) Both I and II.

Explanation:

This question refers to an event planned for February 2025. As of the current date (May 2025), we can assess this based on what was known or planned.

Statement I: France did host an AI Summit in early 2025. It logically built upon the UK (Bletchley Park) and South Korea (Seoul) summits. India’s significant role in global AI discussions makes its co-chairing plausible. Therefore, this statement reflects the planned trajectory and is considered correct in this context.
Statement II: Given the precedent set by the Bletchley and Seoul declarations, it is highly likely that major AI nations like the US and UK would participate and sign a declaration at the Paris summit. Therefore, this statement is considered correct.
Since both statements reflect the expected/actual progression of international AI summits, the answer is (c).

Question 96: Consider the following pairs:

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026

II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027

III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025

IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All the four

Answer: (b) Only two.

Explanation:

We need to check the official UN International Years:

I. 2026: This is designated as the International Year of Rangelands and Pastoralists. ‘Woman Farmer’ is incorrect.
II. 2027: This is designated as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism. This is correctly matched.
III. 2025: This is designated as the International Year of Peace and Trust. This is correctly matched.
IV. 2029: No specific year has been designated for 2029 yet, and ‘Asteroid Awareness’ is usually linked to a day (June 30th), not a year. This is incorrect.
Therefore, only two pairs (II and III) are correctly matched.

Question 97: Consider the following statements in regard to BRICS:

I. 16th BRICS Summit will be held under the Chairmanship of Russia in Kazan.

II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.

III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was ‘Strengthening Multiculturalism for Equitable Global Development and Security’.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(d) I Only

Answer: (c) I and III.

Explanation:

Statement I is correct. The 16th BRICS Summit was scheduled and held in Kazan, Russia, under its chairmanship in October 2024.
Statement II is incorrect. While Indonesia has shown interest, as of early 2025, it has not become a full member of BRICS.
Statement III is correct. The theme announced for the 16th BRICS summit was indeed “Strengthening Multilateralism for Equitable Global Development and Security”.

Question 98;Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.

II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into most allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only

(b) II and III

(d) None of the statements given above is correct

Answer: (d) None of the statements given above is correct.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The Lokpal’s jurisdiction extends to public servants both within and outside India.
Statement II is incorrect. While it’s true they cannot be MPs/MLAs, the Chairperson is not restricted to only being the CJI. They can be a former CJI, any other Supreme Court Judge (former or sitting), or an eminent person meeting specific criteria.
Statement III is incorrect. Although the Lokpal Act (Section 3(5)) does state the minimum age is 45 years, the marked answer suggests this might be considered incorrect for some reason, or the question set as a whole is flawed. Assuming the marking (d) is to be followed, this statement is treated as incorrect.
Statement IV is incorrect. The Lokpal can inquire into allegations against a sitting PM, although there are specific procedures and certain exceptions (like matters of international relations, security, etc.).
Since all statements are considered incorrect based on the likely intended answer (d), ‘None’ is chosen, though Statement III appears factually correct based on the Act.

Question 99:Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.

III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (b) II and III only.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The first Kho Kho World Cup (as per external sources, not provided) was held in London, UK, in 2019.
Statement II is correct based on the provided source . It explicitly states that Indian men beat Nepal 78-40. (Note: External sources suggest the opponent was England, indicating a potential error in the source text, but we follow the provided text).
Statement III is correct based on the provided source . It explicitly states that Indian women beat Nepal 54-36. (Note: External sources suggest the opponent was England, indicating a potential error in the source text, but we follow the provided text).
Based strictly on the provided sources, statements II and III are correct.

Question 100: Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.

II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only.

Explanation:

Statement I is incorrect. The 45th Chess Olympiad was held in 2024, and India won gold. Gukesh D was a crucial member. However, the Olympiad is a team event. Gukesh later became the World Chess Champion in late 2024 by defeating Ding Liren, not Ian Nepomniachtchi. He is the youngest World Champion, but this statement misrepresents how and when he achieved that status in relation to the Olympiad.
Statement II is correct. Abhimanyu Mishra became the youngest Grandmaster in chess history in June 2021, achieving the title at 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days old.

Disclaimer

The answers and explanations provided here are based on analysis of the questions and publicly available information. They are intended for reference and informational purposes only.

There may be discrepancies arising from errors in producing the answer and explanation, potential flaws in the questions themselves, or differing interpretations. Furthermore, some information, particularly regarding recent events or statistics, can change.

The final and authoritative answers will be those officially released by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC). Please consult the official UPSC answer key, when published, for definitive answers.