1. Which country has won the Asia Kabaddi Championship (Circle Style) Cup-2016?
- A) India
- B) Pakistan
- C) Iran
- D) Bangladesh
Answer: B) Pakistan
Explanation: Pakistan won the Asia Kabaddi Championship Cup in 2016.
2. The minimum age to contest Lok Sabha Election is years?
- A) 21
- B) 25
- C) 30
- D) 35
Answer: B) 25
Explanation: The minimum age required to contest Lok Sabha elections in India is 25 years.
3. Under Article ____ emergency, the President of India can proclaim.
- A) 352
- B) 356
- C) 360
- D) 370
Answer: A) 352
Explanation: Article 352 deals with the proclamation of a national emergency by the President of India.
4. The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum strength of ____ members.
- A) 250
- B) 300
- C) 350
- D) 400
Answer: A) 250
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum of 250 members, of which 238 are elected and 12 are nominated.
5. There are ____ non-permanent members of the Security Council of the United Nations.
- A) 5
- B) 10
- C) 15
- D) 20
Answer: B) 10
Explanation: The UN Security Council has 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms.
6. Name the Hindi film actor whose actual name is Yousuf Khan?
- A) Shah Rukh Khan
- B) Dilip Kumar
- C) Aamir Khan
- D) Salman Khan
Answer: B) Dilip Kumar
Explanation: The legendary actor Dilip Kumar’s original name was Yousuf Khan.
7. In whose control does the Income Tax Department work?
- A) Reserve Bank of India
- B) Central Board of Direct Taxes
- C) Ministry of Finance
- D) Securities and Exchange Board of India
Answer: B) Central Board of Direct Taxes
Explanation: The Income Tax Department operates under the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT).
8. Fiscal Policy means, government’s ____.
- A) Revenue and expenditure policy
- B) Foreign policy
- C) Industrial policy
- D) Agricultural policy
Answer: A) Revenue and expenditure policy
Explanation: Fiscal Policy refers to the government’s strategy for managing revenue and expenditure to influence the economy.
9. The strength of Lok Sabha members of Himachal Pradesh is ____.
- A) 2
- B) 4
- C) 6
- D) 8
Answer: B) 4
Explanation: Himachal Pradesh has 4 seats in the Lok Sabha.
10. Match the following correctly (River-Vedic Name):
- A) Ravi-Parushni
- B) Beas-Arjikiya
- C) Chenab-Asikni
- D) Sutlej-Shutudri
Answer: All are correct
Explanation: The Vedic names of the rivers are correctly matched as Ravi-Parushni, Beas-Arjikiya, Chenab-Asikni, and Sutlej-Shutudri.
11. Mohan Meakin Brewery is located in which district?
- A) Shimla
- B) Solan
- C) Kangra
- D) Mandi
Answer: B) Solan
Explanation: Mohan Meakin Brewery is situated in Solan district, Himachal Pradesh.
12. The name Baba Bhalku is associated with ____.
- A) Survey of Shimla Railway
- B) Construction of Temples
- C) Folk Music
- D) Agriculture
Answer: A) Survey of Shimla Railway
Explanation: Baba Bhalku is renowned for his contributions to the survey of the Shimla Railway.
13. What is the meaning of the Losar festival?
- A) Harvest festival
- B) Arrival of the new year festival
- C) Victory celebration
- D) Religious ritual
Answer: B) Arrival of the new year festival
Explanation: Losar is a Tibetan festival marking the arrival of the new year.
14. Give the name of that powerful Kirat’s king who fought the battle against the Arya’s king Divodas.
- A) Shambar
- B) Virat
- C) Kans
- D) Jarasandha
Answer: A) Shambar
Explanation: King Shambar of the Kirat tribe fought against Arya king Divodas.
15. Between whom did the famous Sagauli ki Sandhi of year 1815 happen?
- A) Britishers and Marathas
- B) Britishers and Sikhs
- C) Britishers and Gorakha leader Amar Singh Thapa
- D) Britishers and French
Answer: C) Britishers and Gorakha leader Amar Singh Thapa
Explanation: The Treaty of Sagauli in 1815 was signed between the British and Gorakha leader Amar Singh Thapa.
16. Malana, a place famous as ‘The world’s oldest Democracy,’ is situated in which district?
- A) Kullu
- B) Shimla
- C) Kangra
- D) Chamba
Answer: A) Kullu
Explanation: Malana, known for its unique democratic system, is located in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.
17. Match the following correctly:
- A) Invasion of Mahmood Ghazni in Kangra fort – 1009
- B) First Shimla tour of Mahatma Gandhi – 1921
- C) Pajhauta Movement – 1942
- D) Dhami Firing – 1939
Answer: All are correct
Explanation: The events are correctly matched with their respective years.
18. Famous Bhimakali temple is located in ____.
- A) Sarahan, District Shimla
- B) Mandi
- C) Kullu
- D) Kangra
Answer: A) Sarahan, District Shimla
Explanation: The Bhimakali Temple is situated in Sarahan, Shimla district.
19. Who wrote the famous book ‘Himalayan District of Kullu & Lahaul-Spiti’?
- A) A.P.F. Harcourt
- B) Rabindranath Tagore
- C) Rudyard Kipling
- D) John Keats
Answer: A) A.P.F. Harcourt
Explanation: A.P.F. Harcourt authored the book on the Himalayan districts of Kullu and Lahaul-Spiti.
20. In 1960, Chinni named acquisition tehsil was perplexed in the district of Himachal Pradesh. What is its current name?
- A) Kinnaur
- B) Solan
- C) Shimla
- D) Mandi
Answer: A) Kinnaur
Explanation: The Chinni tehsil is now part of the Kinnaur district.
21. Among Sunni, Thiyog, Karsog, Kumarsen, which acquisition is not located in Shimla district?
- A) Sunni
- B) Thiyog
- C) Karsog
- D) Kumarsen
Answer: C) Karsog
Explanation: Karsog is not located in the Shimla district; it is in the Mandi district.
22. Gumma and Drung are famous mines associated with ____.
- A) Gold
- B) Rock Salt
- C) Coal
- D) Iron
Answer: B) Rock Salt
Explanation: Gumma and Drung are known for their rock salt mines.
23. In which district are the famous Mahakali and Lama lakes situated?
- A) Chamba
- B) Kangra
- C) Kullu
- D) Shimla
Answer: A) Chamba
Explanation: Mahakali and Lama lakes are located in the Chamba district.
24. The river Yamuna passes through which district of Himachal Pradesh?
- A) Sirmaur
- B) Solan
- C) Kinnaur
- D) Mandi
Answer: A) Sirmaur
Explanation: The Yamuna river flows through the Sirmaur district of Himachal Pradesh.
25. Among Martian, Manhunt, Train, Miniature, select the word which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word ‘HUMANITARIAN’.
- A) Martian
- B) Manhunt
- C) Train
- D) Miniature
Answer: D) Miniature
Explanation: The word ‘Miniature’ cannot be formed from the letters of ‘HUMANITARIAN.’
26. Select the odd one out: Joy, Fear, Honest, Anger.
- A) Joy
- B) Fear
- C) Honest
- D) Anger
Answer: C) Honest
Explanation: ‘Honest’ is a character trait, while the others are emotions.
27. Complete the Series: ZY1, AB3, XW5, CD7, ____.
- A) EF9
- B) VU9
- C) GH11
- D) IJ13
Answer: B) VU9
Explanation: The series alternates between reverse and forward alphabetical sequences with odd numbers.
28. Knife: Cut :: Pencil: ____.
- A) Write
- B) Draw
- C) Erase
- D) Sharpen
Answer: B) Draw
Explanation: A knife is used to cut, and a pencil is used to draw.
29. The first National Policy on Education 1968, called for fulfilling compulsory education for all the children up to the age of ____.
- A) 10
- B) 12
- C) 14
- D) 16
Answer: C) 14
Explanation: The 1968 policy aimed at providing compulsory education for children up to 14 years.
30. Indira Gandhi National Open University was established in the year ____.
- A) 1975
- B) 1980
- C) 1985
- D) 1990
Answer: C) 1985
Explanation: IGNOU was established in 1985 to promote distance education.
31. Human Consciousness, according to Charvaka Philosophy is:
- A) Eternal soul
- B) Combination of five elements
- C) Gift of God
- D) Illusion
Answer: B) Combination of five elements
Explanation: Charvaka philosophy asserts consciousness arises from the material combination of earth, water, fire, air, and space.
32. The educator who advanced the idea of the five formal steps in learning was:
- A) Froebel
- B) Montessori
- C) Herbart
- D) Dewey
Answer: C) Herbart
Explanation: Johann Herbart proposed the five-step method: preparation, presentation, association, generalization, and application.
33. “The individual develops through the head, the heart, and the hand.” This was the educational philosophy of:
- A) Rousseau
- B) Pestalozzi
- C) Tagore
- D) Gandhi
Answer: B) Pestalozzi
Explanation: Pestalozzi emphasized holistic development through intellectual (head), emotional (heart), and practical (hand) learning.
34. When the majority of pupils in a science class are poor in reading, the teacher should:
- A) Skip theory lessons
- B) Plan many hands-on activities
- C) Focus only on diagrams
- D) Reduce syllabus
Answer: B) Plan many hands-on activities
Explanation: Experiential learning compensates for reading difficulties by engaging students in practical work.
35. The study of Philosophy is concerned with:
- A) Scientific experiments
- B) Values and ideals
- C) Historical events
- D) Economic systems
Answer: B) Values and ideals
Explanation: Philosophy examines fundamental questions about existence, knowledge, values, and reasoning.
36. To study pupil inter-relationships, the most useful method is:
- A) Questionnaire
- B) Sociogram
- C) Interview
- D) Observation
Answer: B) Sociogram
Explanation: A sociogram visually maps social connections within a group.
37. Disability refers to:
- A) High intelligence
- B) Loss or reduction of functional activity
- C) Extraordinary talent
- D) Temporary illness
Answer: B) Loss or reduction of functional activity
Explanation: Disability results from impairments limiting daily functioning.
38. The most significant approach of evaluation is:
- A) Annual exams
- B) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
- C) Viva voce
- D) Project submission
Answer: B) Continuous and comprehensive evaluation
Explanation: CCE assesses holistic development through regular, varied assessments.
39. ____ was the first Union Education Minister of India.
- A) Jawaharlal Nehru
- B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
- C) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
- D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Explanation: Azad served as India’s first Education Minister from 1947–1958.
40. Which is more relevant for developing teaching skills?
- A) Training technology
- B) Theoretical knowledge
- C) Strict discipline
- D) Large classrooms
Answer: A) Training technology
Explanation: Modern teaching skills rely on pedagogical training and technological tools.
41. Which is not essential for connecting to the internet?
- A) Modem
- B) Router
- C) A television
- D) ISP
Answer: C) A television
Explanation: TVs are not required for internet access, though smart TVs can connect.
42. Which is not a phase of microteaching?
- A) Planning
- B) Teaching phase
- C) Evaluation
- D) Advertising
Answer: D) Advertising
Explanation: Microteaching involves planning, teaching, feedback, and re-teaching, not advertising.
43. FIACS is also known as:
- A) Category system
- B) Grading system
- C) Coding system
- D) Feedback system
Answer: A) Category system
Explanation: Flanders Interaction Analysis Categories System (FIACS) classifies classroom interactions.
44. Extrinsic programming was introduced by:
- A) B.F. Skinner
- B) N.A. Crowder
- C) Jerome Bruner
- D) Robert Gagné
Answer: B) N.A. Crowder
Explanation: Crowder developed intrinsic/extrinsic programming for branched learning.
45. Scrambled programmes refers to:
- A) Random questions
- B) Extrinsic programming
- C) Linear sequences
- D) Fixed curriculum
Answer: B) Extrinsic programming
Explanation: Scrambled programs adapt based on learner responses, a feature of extrinsic programming.
46. ____ Education Commission Report is called the Magna Carta of Indian Education.
- A) Kothari
- B) Wood’s Dispatch
- C) Radhakrishnan
- D) Mudaliar
Answer: B) Wood’s Dispatch
Explanation: The 1854 Wood’s Dispatch laid the foundation for India’s modern education system.
47. Teacher’s role in Project Method is of:
- A) Dictator
- B) Guiding students
- C) Passive observer
- D) Note provider
Answer: B) Guiding students
Explanation: Teachers facilitate and guide students in project-based learning.
48. During British rule in India, who played the most significant role in making English the medium of instruction?
- A) Lord Curzon
- B) Lord Macaulay
- C) Lord Dalhousie
- D) Lord Hastings
Answer: B) Lord Macaulay
Explanation: Macaulay’s 1835 Minute promoted English education in India.
49. Who introduced the three-language formula?
- A) Radhakrishnan Commission
- B) Kothari Commission
- C) Mudaliar Commission
- D) Zakir Hussain Committee
Answer: B) Kothari Commission
Explanation: The 1968 policy based on Kothari Commission recommendations advocated Hindi, English, and a regional language.
50. The Theory of Heredity stating “Heredity does not go to immediate parents but to remote ancestors” was given by:
- A) Mendel
- B) Darwin
- C) Galton
- D) Lamarck
Answer: C) Galton
Explanation: Francis Galton proposed the ancestral heredity theory.
51. When was Group Factor theory by Thurstone at the University of Chicago developed?
- A) 1926
- B) 1936
- C) 1946
- D) 1956
Answer: B) 1936
Explanation: L.L. Thurstone developed the Group Factor Theory of intelligence in 1936.
52. Primary Laws of Learning are ____ in number.
- A) Two
- B) Three
- C) Four
- D) Five
Answer: B) Three
Explanation: Edward Thorndike’s primary laws are readiness, exercise, and effect.
53. Which is the master emotion?
- A) Joy
- B) Fear
- C) Anger
- D) Surprise
Answer: B) Fear
Explanation: Fear is considered the master emotion as it triggers the strongest physiological responses.
54. The National Review Committee has given the recommendations for ____.
- A) Making Vocationalization of education successful
- B) Increasing university seats
- C) Reducing school hours
- D) Changing examination patterns
Answer: A) Making Vocationalization of education successful
Explanation: The committee focused on strengthening vocational education.
55. In which year was a pilot Project for Correspondence Education started by Delhi University?
- A) 1952-1953
- B) 1962-1963
- C) 1972-1973
- D) 1982-1983
Answer: B) 1962-1963
Explanation: Delhi University launched correspondence education in 1962-63.
56. From which language does the term ‘Curriculum’ originate?
- A) Greek
- B) Latin
- C) French
- D) German
Answer: B) Latin
Explanation: ‘Curriculum’ comes from the Latin word for ‘race course’.
57. The Pramana of Veda and other ancient scriptures according to Vedanta is known as:
- A) Sruti
- B) Smriti
- C) Nyaya
- D) Purana
Answer: A) Sruti
Explanation: Sruti refers to the authoritative, revealed scriptures in Hindu philosophy.
58. Who was pioneer in establishing the University at Pondicherry?
- A) Swami Vivekananda
- B) Sri Aurobindo
- C) Rabindranath Tagore
- D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: B) Sri Aurobindo
Explanation: Sri Aurobindo’s vision led to Pondicherry University’s establishment.
59. Petiole crack is due to deficiency of element:
- A) Boron, Zinc
- B) Nitrogen, Phosphorus
- C) Potassium, Calcium
- D) Iron, Magnesium
Answer: A) Boron, Zinc
Explanation: Boron and zinc deficiencies cause petiole cracking in plants.
60. Photorespiration in C₃ plants starts from:
- A) Phosphoglycolate
- B) Glycolate
- C) Glyoxylate
- D) Serine
Answer: A) Phosphoglycolate
Explanation: Photorespiration begins when RuBisCO oxygenates RuBP to form phosphoglycolate.
61. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires:
- A) Iron
- B) Zinc
- C) Copper
- D) Magnesium
Answer: B) Zinc
Explanation: Carboxypeptidase is a zinc-dependent digestive enzyme.
62. Which plant part can respire even in the absence of oxygen?
- A) Leaves
- B) Roots
- C) Seeds
- D) Flowers
Answer: C) Seeds
Explanation: Seeds perform anaerobic respiration during germination.
63. Coconut milk factor is:
- A) Auxin
- B) Gibberellin
- C) Cytokinin
- D) Ethylene
Answer: C) Cytokinin
Explanation: Coconut milk contains cytokinins that promote cell division.
64. Vernalization stimulates flowering in:
- A) Carrot
- B) Rice
- C) Wheat
- D) Cotton
Answer: A) Carrot
Explanation: Carrots require vernalization (cold treatment) to flower.
65. Acid concentration in CAM plant is more at:
- A) Morning
- B) Noon
- C) Evening
- D) Night
Answer: D) Night
Explanation: CAM plants fix CO₂ into malic acid at night.
66. Which light range is most effective in photosynthesis?
- A) Blue
- B) Green
- C) Red
- D) Yellow
Answer: C) Red
Explanation: Chlorophyll absorbs red light most efficiently for photosynthesis.
67. Water reaches the top of the plant due to:
- A) Osmosis
- B) Transpiration
- C) Capillary action
- D) Root pressure
Answer: B) Transpiration
Explanation: Transpiration pull is the main force moving water upward.
68. CAM helps the plant in:
- A) Increasing growth
- B) Conserving water
- C) Enhancing photosynthesis
- D) Absorbing nutrients
Answer: B) Conserving water
Explanation: CAM adaptation reduces water loss in arid conditions.
69. A bicollateral vascular bundle has the following arrangement of tissues:
- A) Outer Phloem-Outer Cambium-Middle Xylem-Inner Cambium-Inner Phloem
- B) Xylem surrounded by phloem
- C) Phloem surrounded by xylem
- D) Random arrangement
Answer: A) Outer Phloem-Outer Cambium-Middle Xylem-Inner Cambium-Inner Phloem
Explanation: Bicollateral bundles have phloem on both sides of xylem.
70. Which one is primary consumer?
- A) Herbivore
- B) Carnivore
- C) Omnivore
- D) Decomposer
Answer: A) Herbivore
Explanation: Primary consumers feed directly on producers (plants).
71. Plant species having a wide range of genetical distribution evolve into a local population known as:
- A) Ecotype
- B) Biotype
- C) Phenotype
- D) Genotype
Answer: A) Ecotype
Explanation: Ecotypes are locally adapted populations within a species.
72. When dominant and recessive allele express themselves together it is known as:
- A) Incomplete dominance
- B) Co-dominance
- C) Overdominance
- D) Epistasis
Answer: B) Co-dominance
Explanation: Both alleles are fully expressed in co-dominance (e.g., AB blood group).
73. A dihybrid ratio is:
- A) 3:1
- B) 9:3:3:1
- C) 1:2:1
- D) 9:7
Answer: B) 9:3:3:1
Explanation: Mendel’s dihybrid cross yields this phenotypic ratio.
74. Which one is a gaseous hormone?
- A) Auxin
- B) Gibberellin
- C) Ethylene
- D) Cytokinin
Answer: C) Ethylene
Explanation: Ethylene is the only gaseous plant hormone.
75. Pollinia are present in family:
- A) Asclepiadaceae
- B) Fabaceae
- C) Solanaceae
- D) Poaceae
Answer: A) Asclepiadaceae
Explanation: Pollinia (pollen masses) are characteristic of milkweed family.
76. Lycopersicum esculentum is the botanical name of:
- A) Potato
- B) Tomato
- C) Brinjal
- D) Chilli
Answer: B) Tomato
Explanation: This is the scientific name for cultivated tomato.
77. Rhizophores are found in:
- A) Selaginella
- B) Ferns
- C) Mosses
- D) Cycads
Answer: A) Selaginella
Explanation: Rhizophores are unique root-like structures in Selaginella.
78. A parasitic alga is:
- A) Cephaleuros
- B) Chlorella
- C) Spirogyra
- D) Volvox
Answer: A) Cephaleuros
Explanation: Cephaleuros is a parasitic green alga causing plant diseases.
79. Strobili in Selaginella are:
- A) Axillary
- B) Terminal
- C) Lateral
- D) Basal
Answer: B) Terminal
Explanation: Cone-like strobili appear at stem tips in Selaginella.
80. Ascospores are:
- A) Exogenous
- B) Endogenous
- C) Both
- D) None
Answer: B) Endogenous
Explanation: Ascospores form inside sac-like asci in fungi.
81. Pyrenoid core consists of:
- A) Starch
- B) Protein
- C) Lipid
- D) DNA
Answer: B) Protein
Explanation: Pyrenoids contain Rubisco enzyme for carbon fixation.
82. Rhizome of fern has:
- A) Protostele
- B) Siphonostele
- C) Dictyostele
- D) Eustele
Answer: C) Dictyostele
Explanation: Fern rhizomes typically have dissected siphonostele (dictyostele).
83. Myrmecophily is pollination by:
- A) Ants
- B) Bees
- C) Birds
- D) Bats
Answer: A) Ants
Explanation: Myrmecophily refers to ant-mediated pollination.
84. The synergids are connected to:
- A) Egg cell
- B) Polar nuclei
- C) Antipodals
- D) Integuments
Answer: A) Egg cell
Explanation: Synergids flank the egg cell in the embryo sac.
85. The generic name of mango is:
- A) Mangifera
- B) Anacardium
- C) Psidium
- D) Syzygium
Answer: A) Mangifera
Explanation: Mango’s botanical name is Mangifera indica.
86. The element needed for evolution of oxygen in photosynthesis is:
- A) Magnesium
- B) Manganese
- C) Iron
- D) Chlorine
Answer: B) Manganese
Explanation: Mn²⁺ is essential for water-splitting in photosystem II.
87. Name of the hormone which controls the production of sperms is:
- A) Estrogen
- B) Progesterone
- C) Testosterone
- D) FSH
Answer: C) Testosterone
Explanation: Testosterone regulates spermatogenesis.
88. The anther contains:
- A) Ovules
- B) Pollen grains
- C) Embryo sac
- D) Nectar
Answer: B) Pollen grains
Explanation: Anthers are pollen-producing parts of stamens.
89. What term is used if the pollen is transferred to the stigma of same flower?
- A) Cross-pollination
- B) Self-pollination
- C) Geitonogamy
- D) Cleistogamy
Answer: B) Self-pollination
Explanation: Transfer within the same flower is self-pollination.
90. In the stem of Asteroxylon, the xylem is:
- A) Starlike in structure
- B) Circular
- C) Scattered
- D) Absent
Answer: A) Starlike in structure
Explanation: Asteroxylon, an early vascular plant, had star-shaped xylem.
91. Equisetum is commonly called as:
- A) Club moss
- B) Horsetail
- C) Spike moss
- D) Fern
Answer: B) Horsetail
Explanation: Equisetum species are known as horsetails.
92. The carinal canal in Equisetum are formed by the disintegration of:
- A) Metaxylem
- B) Protoxylem
- C) Phloem
- D) Cortex
Answer: B) Protoxylem
Explanation: Carinal canals form from broken-down protoxylem.
93. Sori bearing leaves are known as:
- A) Sporophylls
- B) Microphylls
- C) Megaphylls
- D) Cataphylls
Answer: A) Sporophylls
Explanation: Sporophylls bear spore-producing structures.
94. Dryopteris resembles Cycas in having:
- A) Circinate vernation of leaves
- B) Reticulate venation
- C) Parallel venation
- D) Scale leaves
Answer: A) Circinate vernation of leaves
Explanation: Both exhibit coiled young leaves (fiddleheads).
95. In Selaginella, glosspodium is found in:
- A) Ligule
- B) Rhizophore
- C) Strobilus
- D) Stem
Answer: A) Ligule
Explanation: Glosspodium refers to the ligule’s basal region.
96. The presence of a fungus is essential for the development of prothallus in:
- A) Psilotum
- B) Fern
- C) Cycas
- D) Pinus
Answer: A) Psilotum
Explanation: Psilotum gametophytes require fungal symbionts.
97. Stelar theory was proposed by:
- A) Van Tieghem and Douliot
- B) Schmidt
- C) Haberlandt
- D) Strasburger
Answer: A) Van Tieghem and Douliot
Explanation: They described the stele as a fundamental plant unit.
98. Sporocarp of Marsilea is:
- A) Unisporangiate
- B) Bisporangiate
- C) Trisporangiate
- D) Multisporangiate
Answer: B) Bisporangiate
Explanation: Marsilea sporocarps contain both micro- and megasporangia.
99. Tapeworm lacks:
- A) Nervous system
- B) Digestive system
- C) Reproductive system
- D) Excretory system
Answer: B) Digestive system
Explanation: Tapeworms absorb nutrients directly through their tegument.
100. Secondary host of Taenia solium is:
- A) Cow
- B) Pig
- C) Human
- D) Dog
Answer: B) Pig
Explanation: Pigs harbor the larval stage (cysticercus).
101. Devil fish is common name of:
- A) Octopus
- B) Starfish
- C) Jellyfish
- D) Cuttlefish
Answer: A) Octopus
Explanation: Octopus is sometimes called devilfish.
102. The major site of protein Digestion is:
- A) Mouth
- B) Stomach
- C) Small intestine
- D) Large intestine
Answer: C) Small intestine
Explanation: Most protein digestion occurs in the duodenum.
103. Pouched mammals are:
- A) Prototherians
- B) Metatherians
- C) Eutherians
- D) All
Answer: B) Metatherians
Explanation: Marsupials (metatherians) have pouches.
104. Preen gland:
- A) Secretes oil for lubricating feathers
- B) Produces venom
- C) Regulates temperature
- D) Stores fat
Answer: A) Secretes oil for lubricating feathers
Explanation: Uropygial gland maintains feather condition.
105. The yellow colour of urine is due to:
- A) Urochrome
- B) Bilirubin
- C) Hemoglobin
- D) Melanin
Answer: A) Urochrome
Explanation: Urochrome pigment gives urine its yellow color.
106. Healthy human does not excrete out in its urine:
- A) Urea
- B) Glucose
- C) Uric acid
- D) Creatinine
Answer: B) Glucose
Explanation: Glycosuria indicates pathology like diabetes.
107. Latissimus dorsi muscle is the:
- A) Leg muscle
- B) Back muscle
- C) Arm muscle
- D) Neck muscle
Answer: B) Back muscle
Explanation: It’s a large back muscle aiding arm movement.
108. Nissl’s granules of nerve cells are made of:
- A) Protein
- B) DNA
- C) RNA
- D) Lipid
Answer: A) Protein
Explanation: Nissl bodies contain rough ER for protein synthesis.
109. Non-essential amino acids are synthesized in human body during:
- A) Protein catabolism
- B) Protein anabolism
- C) Glycolysis
- D) Krebs cycle
Answer: B) Protein anabolism
Explanation: Non-essential AAs are made during protein synthesis.
110. Pentose and hexose are the most common:
- A) Monosaccharides
- B) Disaccharides
- C) Polysaccharides
- D) Lipids
Answer: A) Monosaccharides
Explanation: 5C (pentose) and 6C (hexose) sugars are monosaccharides.
111. Which acid is secreted by the stomach wall to activate digestive enzymes?
- A) Hydrochloric acid
- B) Sulfuric acid
- C) Nitric acid
- D) Acetic acid
Answer: A) Hydrochloric acid
Explanation: HCl activates pepsinogen to pepsin.
112. Among Amoeba, Earthworm, Hydra, Beetle which one has a nervous system but no brain?
- A) Amoeba
- B) Earthworm
- C) Hydra
- D) Beetle
Answer: C) Hydra
Explanation: Hydra has a nerve net without centralized brain.
113. Virus which cause Hepatitis are transmitted through:
- A) Air
- B) Water
- C) Soil
- D) All
Answer: B) Water
Explanation: Hepatitis A and E spread via contaminated water.
114. Which set of animals share a four-chambered heart?
- A) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals
- B) Frogs, Lizards, Birds
- C) Fish, Amphibians, Reptiles
- D) All vertebrates
Answer: A) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals
Explanation: These groups evolved complete ventricular separation.
115. A hormone responsible for normal sleep-wake cycle is:
- A) Melatonin
- B) Serotonin
- C) Dopamine
- D) Adrenaline
Answer: A) Melatonin
Explanation: Pineal melatonin regulates circadian rhythms.
116. Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of:
- A) Fish
- B) Amphibians
- C) Reptiles
- D) Mammals
Answer: D) Mammals
Explanation: Fibrocartilage discs are mammalian adaptations.
117. Among Earthworm, Snail, Cockroach, Fish which one is not an Invertebrate?
- A) Earthworm
- B) Snail
- C) Cockroach
- D) Fish
Answer: D) Fish
Explanation: Fish are vertebrates with bony/cartilaginous spines.
118. Among Protozoa, Bacteria, Archaea, Ant which one is not an example of Unicellular organism?
- A) Protozoa
- B) Bacteria
- C) Archaea
- D) Ant
Answer: D) Ant
Explanation: Ants are multicellular insects.
119. Amphibians do not have:
- A) Scales
- B) Lungs
- C) Heart
- D) Brain
Answer: A) Scales
Explanation: Amphibian skin is scale-less and glandular.
120. The defining characteristic of living organisms is:
- A) Growth
- B) Response to external stimuli
- C) Reproduction
- D) Metabolism
Answer: B) Response to external stimuli
Explanation: Irritability is fundamental to life.
121. An area in brain associated with strong emotions is:
- A) Cerebellum
- B) Limbic system
- C) Medulla
- D) Thalamus
Answer: B) Limbic system
Explanation: Includes amygdala (fear) and hippocampus (memory).
122. Which organism exhibits Regeneration?
- A) Planaria
- B) Earthworm
- C) Starfish
- D) All
Answer: D) All
Explanation: All can regenerate body parts to varying degrees.
123. What is the term coined by Charles Darwin to explain the process of evolution?
- A) Survival of the fittest
- B) Natural selection
- C) Inheritance of acquired characters
- D) Mutation theory
Answer: B) Natural selection
Explanation: Darwin’s mechanism for evolutionary change.
124. Red ants have:
- A) Formic acid
- B) Citric acid
- C) Lactic acid
- D) Acetic acid
Answer: A) Formic acid
Explanation: Used for defense and communication.
125. Leech belongs to phylum:
- A) Annelida
- B) Arthropoda
- C) Mollusca
- D) Platyhelminthes
Answer: A) Annelida
Explanation: Leeches are segmented worms.
126. Among Lungs, Liver, Kidney, Adrenal gland which one is not an excretory organ?
- A) Lungs
- B) Liver
- C) Kidney
- D) Adrenal gland
Answer: D) Adrenal gland
Explanation: Adrenals are endocrine glands.
127. Embryonic membranes present in reptiles are:
- A) Amnion, chorion, yolk sac and allantois
- B) Only amnion
- C) Only chorion
- D) Only yolk sac
Answer: A) Amnion, chorion, yolk sac and allantois
Explanation: Reptiles have all four extraembryonic membranes.
128. Match the following correctly:
- A) Scale of Shark – Dentine
- B) Hair of Rabbit – exokeratin
- C) Feathers of pigeon – Keratin
- D) Beak of pigeon – Rhamphotheca
Answer: All correct
Explanation: Each pairing accurately describes the structural composition.
129. Absorption of digested food in cockroach takes place in:
- A) Crop
- B) Mesenteron
- C) Gizzard
- D) Rectum
Answer: B) Mesenteron
Explanation: Midgut (mesenteron) is the primary absorptive region.
130. Haemophilia is more common in males because it is a:
- A) Dominant trait
- B) Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome
- C) Y-linked trait
- D) Autosomal trait
Answer: B) Recessive trait carried by X-chromosome
Explanation: X-linked recessive pattern explains male prevalence.
131. The largest of the endocrine glands is:
- A) Adrenal
- B) Thyroid
- C) Pituitary
- D) Pancreas
Answer: B) Thyroid
Explanation: The thyroid gland is the largest endocrine gland in the human body.
132. The process of exchange of gases across the alveolar membrane is:
- A) Osmosis
- B) Diffusion
- C) Active transport
- D) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: B) Diffusion
Explanation: Gases move from high to low concentration across the membrane.
133. Haemoglobin is a:
- A) Protein
- B) Carbohydrate
- C) Lipid
- D) Vitamin
Answer: A) Protein
Explanation: Haemoglobin is a metalloprotein that transports oxygen.
134. Which of the following is an example of an endoparasite?
- A) Leech
- B) Tick
- C) Tapeworm
- D) Lice
Answer: C) Tapeworm
Explanation: Tapeworms live inside the host’s body.
135. The functional unit of the kidney is the:
- A) Neuron
- B) Nephron
- C) Alveolus
- D) Hepatocyte
Answer: B) Nephron
Explanation: Nephrons are responsible for filtering blood and forming urine.
136. Which of the following is a water-soluble vitamin?
- A) Vitamin A
- B) Vitamin D
- C) Vitamin C
- D) Vitamin K
Answer: C) Vitamin C
Explanation: Water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body and need regular intake.
137. Photosynthesis occurs in the:
- A) Mitochondria
- B) Ribosomes
- C) Chloroplasts
- D) Nucleus
Answer: C) Chloroplasts
Explanation: Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, essential for photosynthesis.
138. The energy currency of the cell is:
- A) DNA
- B) RNA
- C) ATP
- D) Glucose
Answer: C) ATP
Explanation: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) provides energy for cellular processes.
139. Which of the following is a fungal disease?
- A) Malaria
- B) Ringworm
- C) Tuberculosis
- D) Cholera
Answer: B) Ringworm
Explanation: Ringworm is a common fungal infection of the skin.
140. The smallest bone in the human body is the:
- A) Femur
- B) Stapes
- C) Humerus
- D) Patella
Answer: B) Stapes
Explanation: The stapes is located in the middle ear.
141. Among Mg, Na, O₂, K which one has smallest size?
- A) Mg
- B) Na
- C) O₂
- D) K
Answer: A) Mg
Explanation: Mg²⁺ has smallest ionic radius in this set.
142. The ionization energy of hydrogen is 1312.0 kJ/mol. Express the value in eV/atom:
- A) 13.60 eV/atom
- B) 1.36 eV/atom
- C) 136.0 eV/atom
- D) 0.136 eV/atom
Answer: A) 13.60 eV/atom
Explanation: 1 eV = 96.485 kJ/mol → 1312/96.485 ≈ 13.6 eV.
143. The hybridization that can be used to account for the linear geometry of XeF₂ molecule is:
- A) sp
- B) sp²
- C) sp³
- D) sp³d
Answer: D) sp³d
Explanation: XeF₂ has trigonal bipyramidal electron geometry (sp³d) with 3 lone pairs.
144. The arrangement of Cl ions in CsCl structure is:
- A) Simple cubic
- B) Body-centered cubic
- C) Face-centered cubic
- D) Hexagonal close-packed
Answer: A) Simple cubic
Explanation: Cl⁻ forms simple cubic lattice in CsCl.
145. The boiling point of water is less than that of:
- A) HF
- B) HCl
- C) HBr
- D) HI
Answer: A) HF
Explanation: HF has stronger hydrogen bonds than H₂O.
146. Which noble gas forms maximum number of compounds?
- A) Helium
- B) Neon
- C) Argon
- D) Xenon
Answer: D) Xenon
Explanation: Forms compounds with F, O, etc. due to lower ionization energy.
147. The volume occupied by 0.25 mol of an ideal gas at STP is:
- A) 5.6 L
- B) 11.2 L
- C) 22.4 L
- D) 44.8 L
Answer: A) 5.6 L
Explanation: At STP, 1 mol = 22.4 L → 0.25 mol = 5.6 L.
148. For the reaction H₂O(l) ⇌ H₂O(g) at 373 K and 1 atm:
- A) ΔH < TΔS
- B) ΔH = TΔS
- C) ΔH > TΔS
- D) ΔG = 0
Answer: B) ΔH = TΔS
Explanation: At boiling point, ΔG=0 → ΔH=TΔS.
149. The chromatographic technique used for the separation of organic compounds was discovered by:
- A) Tswett
- B) Faraday
- C) Arrhenius
- D) Pauling
Answer: A) Tswett
Explanation: Mikhail Tswett pioneered chromatography in 1903.
150. The number of asymmetric carbon atoms in tartaric acid is:
- A) One
- B) Two
- C) Three
- D) Zero
Answer: B) Two
Explanation: Tartaric acid has two chiral centers (C-2 and C-3).
151. Which among CN⁻, ROH, BF₃, NH₃ is not a nucleophile?
- A) CN⁻
- B) ROH
- C) BF₃
- D) NH₃
Answer: C) BF₃
Explanation: BF₃ is electron-deficient (Lewis acid), not nucleophilic.
152. Anisole belongs to the class of:
- A) Alcohols
- B) Ethers
- C) Ketones
- D) Esters
Answer: B) Ethers
Explanation: Anisole is methoxybenzene (aromatic ether).
153. Which chemical is used in desiccators in the laboratory?
- A) CaCl₂
- B) NaCl
- C) NaOH
- D) H₂SO₄
Answer: A) CaCl₂
Explanation: Calcium chloride is a common drying agent.
154. The chlorine atom in ClF₃ molecule has ____ hybridization.
- A) sp²
- B) sp³
- C) sp³d
- D) sp³d²
Answer: C) sp³d
Explanation: T-shaped geometry requires sp³d hybridization.
155. The spontaneous change in specific rotation of solution of an optically active compound is called:
- A) Racemization
- B) Mutarotation
- C) Tautomerism
- D) Epimerization
Answer: B) Mutarotation
Explanation: E.g., α- and β-glucose interconversion.
156. The chief source of starch is:
- A) Potato
- B) Sugarcane
- C) Milk
- D) Meat
Answer: A) Potato
Explanation: Potatoes store starch in tubers.
157. Which monomer is used to produce Nylon-66?
- A) Adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
- B) Ethylene glycol + terephthalic acid
- C) Caprolactam
- D) Vinyl chloride
Answer: A) Adipic acid + hexamethylene diamine
Explanation: Condensation polymerization of these yields Nylon-66.
158. The molecular formula of camphor is:
- A) C₁₀H₁₆O
- B) C₆H₁₂O₆
- C) C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁
- D) C₇H₈O
Answer: A) C₁₀H₁₆O
Explanation: Camphor is a bicyclic terpenoid.
159. Equivalent weight of K₂Cr₂O₇ in dilute H₂SO₄ is:
- A) 49
- B) 98
- C) 294
- D) 147
Answer: A) 49
Explanation: In acidic medium, Cr₂O₇²⁻ → 2Cr³⁺ (6e⁻ change). Eq wt = Molar mass/6 = 294/6 = 49.
160. In gravimetric analysis, DMG is used for the precipitation of:
- A) Fe²⁺
- B) Ni²⁺
- C) Cu²⁺
- D) Zn²⁺
Answer: B) Ni²⁺
Explanation: Dimethylglyoxime forms red precipitate with Ni²⁺.
161. Among BF₃, BCl₃, BBr₃ which one is a strong Lewis acid?
- A) BF₃
- B) BCl₃
- C) BBr₃
- D) All equal
Answer: C) BBr₃
Explanation: Lewis acidity increases with larger halogens due to weaker π-backbonding.
162. The formula of Cryolite is:
- A) Na₃AlF₆
- B) Na₂CO₃
- C) NaAlO₂
- D) Na₂SiO₃
Answer: A) Na₃AlF₆
Explanation: Used in Hall-Héroult process for Al extraction.
163. Brass is:
- A) An element
- B) A compound
- C) An alloy
- D) A mineral
Answer: C) An alloy
Explanation: Brass = Copper + Zinc.
164. CaOCl₂ is the name of:
- A) Baking soda
- B) Washing soda
- C) Bleaching powder
- D) Plaster of Paris
Answer: C) Bleaching powder
Explanation: Calcium oxychloride, a disinfectant.
165. Which Chemical process represents slow combustion?
- A) Rusting of Iron, Respiration
- B) Photosynthesis
- C) Electrolysis
- D) Fermentation
Answer: A) Rusting of Iron, Respiration
Explanation: Both are oxidation reactions at slow rates.
166. When CNG or LPG undergoes complete combustion, the products formed are:
- A) CO and H₂O
- B) CO₂ and H₂O
- C) C and H₂O
- D) CH₄ and O₂
Answer: B) CO₂ and H₂O
Explanation: Complete combustion yields carbon dioxide and water.
167. The process of converting sugars into alcohols is known as:
- A) Fermentation
- B) Distillation
- C) Polymerization
- D) Hydrogenation
Answer: A) Fermentation
Explanation: Yeast converts sugars to ethanol + CO₂.
168. Peeling of onions cause tears, as onion releases:
- A) Sulfenic acid
- B) Acetic acid
- C) Citric acid
- D) Lactic acid
Answer: A) Sulfenic acid
Explanation: Forms volatile syn-propanethial-S-oxide.
169. The most commonly used material for making transistors is:
- A) Silicon
- B) Copper
- C) Aluminum
- D) Gold
Answer: A) Silicon
Explanation: Semiconductor properties ideal for electronics.
170. The common name of the chemical compound Cholecalciferol is:
- A) Vitamin A
- B) Vitamin B₁₂
- C) Vitamin C
- D) Vitamin D
Answer: D) Vitamin D
Explanation: Cholecalciferol = Vitamin D₃.
171. The Chemical used as a fixer in photography:
- A) Sodium thiosulphate
- B) Silver nitrate
- C) Potassium permanganate
- D) Hydroquinone
Answer: A) Sodium thiosulphate
Explanation: Dissolves unexposed AgBr to “fix” the image.
172. ‘Yellow cake,’ an item of smuggling across border is:
- A) Uranium oxide
- B) Cocaine
- C) Sulfur
- D) Gold dust
Answer: A) Uranium oxide
Explanation: Intermediate in uranium processing (U₃O₈).
173. Among Phosphorous trichloride, Mercuric oxide, Graphite, Nitroglycerine which one is used as an explosive?
- A) Phosphorous trichloride
- B) Mercuric oxide
- C) Graphite
- D) Nitroglycerine
Answer: D) Nitroglycerine
Explanation: Nitroglycerine is a highly explosive compound used in dynamite.
174. CH₃-Mg-Br is an Organo-metallic compound due to:
- A) C-Mg bond
- B) C-Br bond
- C) Mg-Br bond
- D) All of the above
Answer: A) C-Mg bond
Explanation: The carbon-metal (C-Mg) bond classifies it as an organometallic compound.
175. The hybridization of orbitals of N atom in NO₃⁻, NO₂⁻, and NH₄⁺ are respectively:
- A) sp², sp, sp³
- B) sp, sp², sp³
- C) sp³, sp², sp
- D) sp², sp², sp³
Answer: A) sp², sp, sp³
Explanation: NO₃⁻: trigonal planar (sp²); NO₂⁻: bent (sp); NH₄⁺: tetrahedral (sp³).
176. Among XeF₄, XeF₂, XeO₃, XeF₆ which one has maximum number of lone pairs associated with Xe?
- A) XeF₄
- B) XeF₂
- C) XeO₃
- D) XeF₆
Answer: B) XeF₂
Explanation: XeF₂ has 3 lone pairs on Xe (linear geometry), while others have fewer.
177. The decreasing value of bond angles from NH₃ (106°) to SbH₃ (101°) down Group 15 is due to:
- A) Increasing p-orbital character in sp³
- B) Decreasing electronegativity
- C) Larger atomic size
- D) All of the above
Answer: A) Increasing p-orbital character in sp³
Explanation: Larger atoms (like Sb) favor p-orbital dominance, reducing bond angles.
178. In Van der Waals equation of state, the constant ‘b’ is a measure of:
- A) Intermolecular forces
- B) Volume occupied by gas molecules
- C) Temperature correction
- D) Pressure correction
Answer: B) Volume occupied by gas molecules
Explanation: ‘b’ accounts for the finite volume of gas particles.
179. A person who walks on foot is called:
- A) Pedestrian
- B) Nomad
- C) Wanderer
- D) Cyclist
Answer: A) Pedestrian
Explanation: Derived from Latin “pedester” (on foot).
180. Her performance was disappointing, but she tried to put a brave face _____.
- A) on
- B) in
- C) at
- D) by
Answer: A) on
Explanation: Idiom “put a brave face on” means to hide distress.
181. Despite repeated announcements, the passenger did not turn _____.
- A) up
- B) in
- C) out
- D) over
Answer: A) up
Explanation: “Turn up” means to arrive or appear.
182. The synonym for the word DESERT is:
- A) Abandon
- B) Reward
- C) Praise
- D) Protect
Answer: A) Abandon
Explanation: “Desert” (verb) means to leave without permission.
183. You say you are sorry. You _____ to apologize.
- A) ought
- B) must
- C) need
- D) can
Answer: A) ought
Explanation: “Ought to” expresses moral obligation.
184. ‘Harish has a white T-Shirt.’ In this sentence, the word ‘White’ is a/an:
- A) Noun
- B) Verb
- C) Adjective
- D) Adverb
Answer: C) Adjective
Explanation: It describes the noun (T-Shirt).
185. खरी-खोटी सुनाना मुहावरे का अर्थ:
- A) बुरा-भला कहना
- B) गाली देना
- C) प्रशंसा करना
- D) चुप रहना
Answer: A) बुरा-भला कहना
Explanation: इस मुहावरे का अर्थ है “कठोर वचन कहना”।
186. इत्यादि-शब्द का संधि-विच्छेद है:
- A) इति + आदि
- B) इत + यादि
- C) इत्य + आदि
- D) इत्या + दि
Answer: A) इति + आदि
Explanation: इत्यादि = इति (इतना) + आदि (और)।
187. विश्वास, व्याख्या, विचार, मत में से ‘धारणा’ का अनेकार्थी शब्द नहीं है:
- A) विश्वास
- B) व्याख्या
- C) विचार
- D) मत
Answer: B) व्याख्या
Explanation: “व्याख्या” (explanation) is not synonymous with “धारणा” (belief).
188. चीर का पर्यायवाची है:
- A) पट
- B) वस्त्र
- C) कपड़ा
- D) आच्छादन
Answer: A) पट
Explanation: संस्कृत में “चीर” और “पट” दोनों वस्त्र के अर्थ देते हैं।
189. आलू, प्रत्यय लगाकर बनने वाला शब्द है:
- A) दयालु
- B) सतालु
- C) मितालु
- D) कृपालु
Answer: A) दयालु
Explanation: “आलु” प्रत्यय लगने से “दया” → “दयालु” बना।
190. स्त्री-पुरूष उदाहरण है:
- A) अव्ययीभाव समास का
- B) द्वंद्व समास का
- C) तत्पुरुष समास का
- D) कर्मधारय समास का
Answer: B) द्वंद्व समास का
Explanation: द्वंद्व समास में दोनों पद प्रधान होते हैं (स्त्री और पुरूष)।
191. Donald Trump, who ran for U.S. President in the 2016 elections, belonged to which party?
- A) Democratic
- B) Republican
- C) Libertarian
- D) Independent
Answer: B) Republican
Explanation: Trump was the Republican Party’s nominee in the 2016 presidential election.
192. Who was selected for the prestigious Saraswati Samman in 2015?
- A) Padma Sachdeva
- B) Arundhati Roy
- C) Ruskin Bond
- D) Amitav Ghosh
Answer: A) Padma Sachdeva
Explanation: Padma Sachdeva received the Saraswati Samman for her literary contributions in 2015.
193. Whose name is associated with the great Hindi literary work ‘Kamayani’ as its author?
- A) Munshi Premchand
- B) Jaishankar Prasad
- C) Harivansh Rai Bachchan
- D) Mahadevi Verma
Answer: B) Jaishankar Prasad
Explanation: ‘Kamayani’, an epic poem, was written by Jaishankar Prasad, a pioneer of modern Hindi literature.
194. Buddha delivered his first sermon at:
- A) Bodh Gaya
- B) Sarnath
- C) Lumbini
- D) Kushinagar
Answer: B) Sarnath
Explanation: The first sermon, called “Dhammacakkappavattana Sutta,” was preached at Sarnath’s Deer Park.
195. Ramakrishna Mission was founded by:
- A) Ramakrishna Paramahamsa
- B) Swami Vivekananda
- C) Sri Aurobindo
- D) Dayananda Saraswati
Answer: B) Swami Vivekananda
Explanation: Swami Vivekananda established the mission in 1897 to promote social service and spiritual growth.
196. Who introduced the Mansabdari System to improve the Mughal Empire’s administrative system?
- A) Akbar
- B) Babur
- C) Aurangzeb
- D) Shah Jahan
Answer: A) Akbar
Explanation: Akbar institutionalized this rank-based system for military and civil administration.
197. Which people/community is associated with igloos?
- A) Maasai
- B) Eskimo (Inuit)
- C) Bedouin
- D) Sami
Answer: B) Eskimo (Inuit)
Explanation: Igloos (snow houses) are traditional shelters of the Inuit people in Arctic regions.
198. Which group is associated with the Cardamom Hills?
- A) Karnataka and Kerala
- B) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
- C) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
- D) Maharashtra and Goa
Answer: B) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
Explanation: The Cardamom Hills span these two states in the Western Ghats.
199. ______ is popularly known as the ‘Leather City of the World’.
- A) Agra
- B) Kanpur
- C) Chennai
- D) Jalandhar
Answer: B) Kanpur
Explanation: Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh, is a global hub for leather production and trade.
200. The name Seema Punia is associated with:
- A) Shot Put
- B) Discus Throw
- C) Javelin Throw
- D) Long Jump
Answer: B) Discus Throw
Explanation: Seema Punia is an Indian athlete who won medals in discus throw at international events.