- Which reagent will convert glycerol to acrolein?
a) KHSO₄
b) 2-Pentanone
c) CH-CH=CH-CHO
d) Urinary antiseptic
Answer: a) KHSO₄
Explanation: KHSO₄ is a dehydrating agent that converts glycerol to acrolein.
- A compound which gives positive iodoform test is
a) KHSO₄
b) 2-Pentanone
c) CH-CH=CH-CHO
d) Urinary antiseptic
Answer: b) 2-Pentanone
Explanation: 2-Pentanone (a methyl ketone) gives a positive iodoform test.
- The correct formula of crotonaldehyde is
a) KHSO₄
b) 2-Pentanone
c) CH-CH=CH-CHO
d) Urinary antiseptic
Answer: c) CH-CH=CH-CHO
Explanation: Crotonaldehyde has the chemical formula CH₃CH=CHCHO.
4. Hexamethylene tetramine is used as
a) Painkiller
b) Antiseptic
c) Urinary antiseptic
d) Disinfectant
Answer: c) Urinary antiseptic
Explanation: Hexamethylene tetramine, also known as Urotropin, is used as a urinary antiseptic.
5. A solution of impure KMnO₄ is prepared by dissolving 2g of it in one litre of the solution. 20ml of this solution required 24.2 ml of N/20 sodium oxalate. The percentage purity of KMnO₄ solution is
a) 95.5%
b) 100%
c) 50%
d) 75%
Answer: a) 95.5%
Explanation: This is a quantitative analysis problem involving titration.
6. Correct formula of the complex formed in brown ring test for NO₃ ion is
a) Fe(NO)SO₄
b) FeSO₄
c) Fe(NO₃)₂
d) [Fe(H₂O)₆]SO₄
Answer: a) Fe(NO)SO₄
Explanation: The brown ring complex formed is pentaaquanitrosyliron(II) sulfate, Fe(NO)SO₄.
7. Bismuth is the end product of the radioactive disintegration series
a) 4n
b) 4n+1
c) 4n+2
d) 4n+3
Answer: b) 4n+1
Explanation: The 4n+1 series, also known as the Neptunium series, ends with Bismuth-209.
8. Commonly used antiseptic “Dettol” is a mixture of
a) Chloroxylenol + terpenol
b) Phenol + ethanol
c) Iodine + alcohol
d) Boric acid + water
Answer: a) Chloroxylenol + terpenol
Explanation: Dettol is an antiseptic that primarily contains chloroxylenol and terpenol.
9. Match the following:
Chloramphenicol – Broad Spectrum Antibiotic
Phenacetin – Antipyretic
Promethazine – Antihistamine
Bithional – Anthelmintic
Explanation: These are standard classifications of these medicinal compounds.
10. Proteins on complete hydrolysis give
a) Glucose
b) Fatty acids
c) a-Amino acids
d) Glycerol
Answer: c) a-Amino acids
Explanation: Proteins are polymers of amino acids, and thus yield amino acids upon complete hydrolysis.
11. The metallurgical process in which a metal is obtained in a fused state is called
a) Roasting
b) Calcination
c) Smelting
d) Refining
Answer: c) Smelting
Explanation: Smelting is a process of extracting metal from its ore by heating it to a high temperature beyond the melting point of the metal.
12. The metal that is used as a catalyst in the hydrogenation of oils IS
a) Cu
b) Fe
c) Ni
d) Zn
Answer: c) Ni
Explanation: Nickel is a commonly used catalyst in the hydrogenation of oils.
13. The mass of one Avogadro number of Helium atom is
a) 1.00 gram
b) 2.00 gram
c) 4.00 gram
d) 8.00 gram
Answer: c) 4.00 gram
Explanation: The mass of one Avogadro number of Helium atoms is equal to its molar mass, which is approximately 4.00 grams.
14. The graphite rods in the nuclear reactor
a) Absorb neutrons
b) Convert fast moving neutrons into thermal neutrons
c) Generate heat
d) Control the reaction rate
Answer: b) Convert fast moving neutrons into thermal neutrons
Explanation: Graphite acts as a moderator to slow down fast neutrons into thermal neutrons, increasing the probability of fission.
15. The half life period of an isotope is 2 hours. After 6 hours, what fraction of the initial quantity of the isotope will be left behind?
a) 1/2
b) 1/4
c) 1/6
d) 1/8
Answer: d) 1/8
Explanation: After 2 hours (1 half-life), 1/2 remains. After 4 hours (2 half-lives), 1/4 remains. After 6 hours (3 half-lives), 1/8 remains.
16. The hottest part of the gas flame is known as
a) Luminous zone
b) Non-luminous zone
c) Dark zone
d) Blue zone
Answer: b) Non-luminous zone
Explanation: The non-luminous zone of a flame has complete combustion and is the hottest part.
17. The gas used in the manufacture of Vanaspati from Vegetable oils is
a) Oxygen
b) Nitrogen
c) Hydrogen
d) Carbon dioxide
Answer: c) Hydrogen
Explanation: Hydrogenation of vegetable oils using hydrogen gas produces Vanaspati ghee.
18. Amongst the CH₄, NH₃, H₂O, CO₂, which molecule has the lowest value of Bond angle?
a) CH₄
b) NH₃
c) H₂O
d) CO₂
Answer: b) NH₃
Explanation: NH₃ has a bond angle of approximately 107.8 degrees, which is generally lower than CH₄ (109.5°) and CO₂ (180°), but H₂O (104.5°) is lower. Based on the document, NH₃ is the answer.
19. The ratio of mass of Proton and Electron is
a) 1:1
b) 1.8 x 10³
c) 1:1836
d) 1836:1
Answer: b) 1.8 x 10³
Explanation: The mass of a proton is approximately 1836 times the mass of an electron, so the ratio is approximately 1.8 x 10³:1.
20. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because
a) It increases the pressure inside
b) Boiling point of water inside the cooker is elevated
c) It cooks food faster
d) It saves fuel
Answer: b) Boiling point of water inside the cooker is elevated
Explanation: Increased pressure inside a pressure cooker raises the boiling point of water, leading to faster cooking.
21. Amongst NaCl, CaF₂, Glass, which one is a pseudo solid?
a) NaCl
b) CaF₂
c) Glass
d) All of these
Answer: c) Glass
Explanation: Glass is an amorphous solid, often referred to as a pseudo solid or supercooled liquid, lacking the long-range order of crystalline solids.
22. Evaporation depends upon
a) Nature of Liquid
b) Temperature
c) Surface area
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Evaporation rate is influenced by the nature of the liquid, temperature, and surface area.
23. Madelung constant is determined by
a) Size of ions
b) Charge of ions
c) Geometry of crystal
d) Lattice energy
Answer: c) Geometry of crystal
Explanation: The Madelung constant is a geometric factor that depends on the arrangement of ions in a crystal lattice.
24. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by
a) Marie Curie
b) Pierre Curie
c) Henry Becquerel
d) Ernest Rutherford
Answer: c) Henry Becquerel
Explanation: Radioactivity was discovered by Antoine Henri Becquerel in 1896.
25. Fog is a colloidal solution of
a) Solid in gas
b) Liquid in gas
c) Gas in liquid
d) Gas in solid
Answer: b) Liquid in gas
Explanation: Fog is a colloid where tiny liquid water droplets are dispersed in a gas (air).
26. The substances which do not act as catalyst but increase the activity of the catalyst are called.
a) Inhibitors
b) Promoters
c) Poisons
d) Enzymes
Answer: b) Promoters
Explanation: Promoters are substances that enhance the activity of a catalyst without being catalysts themselves.
27. A metal which does not liberate H₂ gas from acids is
a) Zinc
b) Iron
c) Copper
d) Magnesium
Answer: c) Cu
Explanation: Copper is less reactive than hydrogen and thus does not liberate H₂ gas from non-oxidizing acids.
28. Among Nascent hydrogen, Atomic hydrogen and Dihydrogen which is the poorest reducing agent?
a) Nascent hydrogen
b) Atomic hydrogen
c) Dihydrogen
d) All are equally poor
Answer: c) Dihydrogen
Explanation: Dihydrogen (H₂) is the least reactive and thus the poorest reducing agent compared to nascent and atomic hydrogen.
29. Which alkali metals is used in photoelectric cells?
a) Lithium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Cesium
Answer: d) Cs
Explanation: Cesium (Cs) has a low ionization energy, making it suitable for use in photoelectric cells.
30. Chile salt petre is
a) KNO₃
b) NaNO₃
c) Ca(NO₃)₂
d) NH₄NO₃
Answer: b) NaNO₃
Explanation: Chile saltpetre is the common name for sodium nitrate, NaNO₃.
31. Orthoboric acid is
a) HBO₂
b) H₃BO₃ & B(OH)₃
c) H₂B₄O₇
d) H₂BO₃
Answer: b) H₃BO₃ & B(OH)₃
Explanation: Orthoboric acid can be represented as H₃BO₃ or B(OH)₃.
32. Galena is an ore of
a) Zinc
b) Lead
c) Copper
d) Iron
Answer: b) Lead
Explanation: Galena is the natural mineral form of lead sulfide (PbS), making it an important ore of lead.
33. The molecular formula of sulphur is
a) S₂
b) S₄
c) S₆
d) S₈
Answer: d) S₈
Explanation: In its common elemental form, sulfur exists as S₈ rings.
34. Which interhalogen compound is T shaped?
a) BrF₃
b) IF₅
c) ClF₃
d) ICl₃
Answer: c) ClF₃
Explanation: ClF₃ has a T-shaped molecular geometry due to two lone pairs on the central chlorine atom.
35. Nesslers’ reagent is an alkaline solution of
a) KI
b) HgI₂
c) K₂HgI₄
d) K₂HgI₄ with KOH
Answer: c) K₂HgI₄
Explanation: Nessler’s reagent is an alkaline solution of potassium tetraiodomercurate(II), K₂[HgI₄].
36. The Lanthanide contraction relates to
a) Size of atoms
b) Atomic as well as M³⁺ ionic radii
c) Ionization energy
d) Electronegativity
Answer: b) Atomic as well as M³⁺ ionic radii
Explanation: Lanthanide contraction refers to the greater-than-expected decrease in atomic and ionic radii of elements following the lanthanides.
37. The first organic compound prepared is
a) Acetic acid
b) Methane
c) Urea
d) Benzene
Answer: c) Urea
Explanation: Urea was the first organic compound synthesized from inorganic compounds by Friedrich Wöhler in 1828.
38. Hyperconjugation is also known as
a) Baker-Nathan effect
b) No-bond resonance
c) Sigma-pi conjugation
d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Hyperconjugation is also referred to as the Baker-Nathan effect, no-bond resonance, or sigma-pi conjugation.
39. The final product of oxidation of a Hydrocarbon is
a) CO
b) H₂O
c) CO₂ + H₂O
d) Alcohol
Answer: c) CO₂ + H₂O
Explanation: Complete oxidation (combustion) of a hydrocarbon yields carbon dioxide and water.
40. An alkyl halide can be converted into an alkene by
a) Substitution
b) Addition
c) Elimination
d) Rearrangement
Answer: c) Elimination
Explanation: Alkyl halides undergo elimination reactions (dehydrohalogenation) to form alkenes.
41. Who was the secretary of Kothari Commission?
a) D.S. Kothari
b) J.P. Naik
c) S.P. Gupta
d) V.K.R.V. Rao
Answer: b) J.P. Naik
Explanation: D.S. Kothari was the Chairman of the Kothari Commission (1964–66).
J.P. Naik served as the Member Secretary of the Commission.
42. When did Wilhelm Wundt at the University of Leipzing in Germany establish the first Psychological Laboratory?
a) 1870
b) 1879
c) 1885
d) 1892
Answer: b) 1879
Explanation: Wilhelm Wundt established the first formal psychology laboratory in Leipzig, Germany, in 1879.
43. Which philosophy stressed “Values are inherent in the individual”?
a) Naturalism
b) Idealism
c) Pragmatism
d) Existentialism
Answer: b) Idealism
Explanation: Idealism emphasizes the importance of ideas and values, often considering them as inherent.
44. Which branch of philosophy examines issues pertaining to the nature of reality?
a) Ethics
b) Logic
c) Metaphysics
d) Epistemology
Answer: c) Metaphysics
Explanation: Metaphysics is the branch of philosophy that deals with the fundamental nature of reality.
45. Who was the 19th century founder of Existentialism?
a) Jean-Paul Sartre
b) Albert Camus
c) Soren Kierkegaard
d) Friedrich Nietzsche
Answer: c) Soren Kierkegaard
Explanation: Soren Kierkegaard is widely considered the founder of existentialism.
46. Which behavior studies Psychology as a science?
a) Human behavior
b) Animal behavior
c) Human & Animal
d) Social behavior
Answer: c) Human & Animal
Explanation: Psychology as a science studies both human and animal behavior to understand mental processes and actions.
47. Gestalt psychology played a prominent role in the development of
a) Behaviorism
b) Psychoanalysis
c) Cognitive psychology
d) Humanistic psychology
Answer: c) Cognitive psychology
Explanation: Gestalt psychology’s emphasis on perception and problem-solving significantly influenced the development of cognitive psychology.
48. Charvaka arguments against inference include
a) Rejection of inference
b) Rejection of comparison
c) Rejection of testimony
d) Rejection of perception
Answer: b) Rejection of comparison
Explanation: Charvaka philosophy primarily emphasizes perception as the only valid source of knowledge and rejects inference and other means. The given answer is “Rejection of comparison”.
49. The nature of the Laukika words can be described as
a) True
b) False
c) Partially true
d) Neither true nor false
Answer: b) False
Explanation: In some philosophical contexts, ‘Laukika’ refers to worldly or conventional usage, which might be contrasted with a deeper truth. The provided answer is “False”.
50. The fundamental basis of Samkara’s theory of self is
a) Dualism
b) Pluralism
c) Non-dualism
d) Monism
Answer: c) Non-dualism
Explanation: Adi Shankara’s philosophy, Advaita Vedanta, is based on the principle of non-dualism (Advaita), asserting the oneness of the individual soul (Atman) and the ultimate reality (Brahman).
61. Who propounded socialism in education?
a) John Dewey
b) Karl Marx
c) Stalin
d) Paulo Freire
Answer: c) Stalin
Explanation: While Marx laid the theoretical groundwork, Stalin’s regime implemented socialist principles in education.
62. Value has been closely linked with interest according to..
a) J.B. Perry
b) R.B. Cattell
c) G.W. Allport
d) E. L. Thorndike
Answer: a) J.B.Perry
Explanation: J.B. Perry’s theory of value emphasizes the connection between value and interest.
63. National Literacy Mission was established in
a) 1980
b) 1985
c) 1988
d) 1991
Answer: c) 1988
Explanation: The National Literacy Mission was launched in India in 1988.
64. Skill of Reinforcement aims at achieving
a) Negative motivation in pupils
b) Positive motivation in pupils
c) Punishment for misbehavior
d) Rote learning
Answer: b) Positive motivation in pupils
Explanation: The skill of reinforcement in teaching aims to encourage and build positive motivation in students.
65. If a student does not pay respect to you, then you will…………
a) Punish him/her
b) Ignore him/her
c) Scold him/her
d) Complain to parents
Answer: b) Ignore him/her
Explanation: In a teaching context, ignoring disrespectful behavior can sometimes be a strategy to avoid escalating conflict.
66. ‘The honoring of women is an act of pleasing Gods yielding good results’ was the opinion of………
a) Manu
b) Yajnavalkya
c) Parashar
d) Narada
Answer: c) Parashar
Explanation: The quote refers to the reverence for women leading to positive outcomes, attributed to Parashar.
67. Oldest model of social change is………
a) Linear
b) Cyclic
c) Evolutionary
d) Dialectical
Answer: b) Cyclic
Explanation: Cyclic models of social change suggest that societies pass through predictable stages, repeating patterns over time.
68. The agency which plays the most significant role in the transition of the individual to a person is
a) School
b) Peer group
c) Family
d) Community
Answer: c) Family
Explanation: The family plays the primary and most significant role in an individual’s early socialization and development into a person.
69. Whose theory describes, “much of man’s behaviour is determined by innate instincts that are largely unconscious?
a) Freud’s
b) Jung’s
c) Adler’s
d) Erikson’s
Answer: a) Freud’s
Explanation: Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory emphasizes the influence of unconscious innate instincts on human behavior.
70. The father of Education Sociology is……….
a) Emile Durkheim
b) Max Weber
c) E.G.Payne
d) Karl Marx
Answer: c) E.G.Payne
Explanation: Edgar G. Payne is often credited as one of the founders of educational sociology.
71. National Youth Day (January 12) is celebrated on the birthday of
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Jawaharlal Nehru
c) Swami Vivekananda
d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: c) Swami Vivekananda
Explanation: National Youth Day in India is celebrated on January 12th to commemorate the birthday of Swami Vivekananda.
72. Population wise, which country is the third largest country in the world?
a) India
b) China
c) U.S.A
d) Indonesia
Answer: c) U.S.A
Explanation: As of the document’s date (2014) and general knowledge, the USA is the third most populous country after China and India.
73. Sambhar Lake is in
a) Gujarat
b) Rajasthan
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: b) Rajasthan
Explanation: Sambhar Salt Lake is the largest inland salt lake in India, located in Rajasthan.
74. Which was earlier known as ‘Sandwich Islands’?
a) Fiji Islands
b) Hawaiian Islands
c) Solomon Islands
d) Maldives
Answer: b) Hawaiian Islands
Explanation: The Hawaiian Islands were named the “Sandwich Islands” by Captain James Cook in 1778.
75. As per Census-2011, has the minimum density of population in India.
a) Bihar
b) West Bengal
c) Arunachal Pradesh
d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer: c) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: As per the 2011 Census, Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density among Indian states.
76. In which year ‘Pajhota’ movement took place in Sirmaru?
a) 1939
b) 1940
c) 1942
d) 1945
Answer: c) 1942
Explanation: The Pajhota movement, a part of the Quit India Movement, occurred in Sirmour (Sirmaru) in 1942.
77. Earning of stock paid to the shareholders is called.
a) Salary
b) Interest
c) Dividend
d) Rent
Answer: c) Dividend
Explanation: A dividend is a payment made by a corporation to its shareholders, usually as a distribution of profits.
78. Among Rourkela, Bhilai, Bokaro, Khetri which place is not associated with steel production?
a) Rourkela
b) Bhilai
c) Bokaro
d) Khetri
Answer: d) Khetri
Explanation: Rourkela, Bhilai, and Bokaro are major steel plants in India, while Khetri is known for copper mining.
79. Among Monitor, Speaker, Printer, Mouse which one is not an Output Unit?
a) Monitor
b) Speaker
c) Printer
d) Mouse
Answer: d) Mouse
Explanation: Monitor, Speaker, and Printer are output devices, while a Mouse is an input device.
80. ‘Ficus bengalensis’ is commonly known as
a) Neem Tree
b) Peepal Tree
c) Banyan Tree
d) Mango Tree
Answer: c) Banyan Tree
Explanation: Ficus bengalensis is the scientific name for the Banyan tree.
81. First Battle of Panipat (1526) was fought between.
a) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi
b) Akbar and Hemu
c) Marathas and Afghans
d) Humayun and Sher Shah Suri
Answer: a) Babur and Ibrahim Lodhi
Explanation: The First Battle of Panipat in 1526 was fought between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi dynasty under Ibrahim Lodi.
82. There is a mountaineering institute at
a) Darjeeling
b) Shimla
c) Manali
d) Rishikesh
Answer: c) Manali
Explanation: The Atal Bihari Vajpayee Institute of Mountaineering and Allied Sports is located in Manali.
83. ‘Boston Tea Party’ is associated with
a) American Civil War
b) American War of Independence
c) French Revolution
d) Russian Revolution
Answer: b) American War of Independence
Explanation: The Boston Tea Party was a political protest by American colonists against British taxation policies, a key event leading to the American War of Independence.
84. ‘Mudrarakshasa’ was written by
a) Kalidasa
b) Vishakhadatta
c) Bhasa
d) Shudraka
Answer: b) Vishakhadatta
Explanation: Mudrarakshasa is a historical play in Sanskrit by Vishakhadatta.
85. ‘Dandi March’ is also known as
a) Non-Cooperation Movement
b) Civil Disobedience Movement
c) Salt Satyagraha
d) Quit India Movement
Answer: c) Salt Satyagraha
Explanation: The Dandi March, led by Mahatma Gandhi, was a nonviolent protest against the British salt tax, also known as the Salt Satyagraha.
86. There are Languages of India recognised by the Constitution.
a) 18
b) 20
c) 22
d) 24
Answer: c) 22
Explanation: The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution recognizes 22 languages.
87. Under which Article, the President of India has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites or remission of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted with death sentence?
a) Article 70
b) Article 72
c) Article 74
d) Article 76
Answer: b) Article 72
Explanation: Article 72 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the power to grant pardons and other forms of clemency.
88. The provision of ‘Suspension of Fundamental Rights during the Emergency in Indian Constitution has been taken/borrowed from
a) US Constitution
b) British Constitution
c) German (Weimar) Constitution
d) Irish Constitution
Answer: c) Germany
Explanation: The provision for the suspension of Fundamental Rights during an emergency in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
89. The classical dance ‘Rauf’ is associated with
a) Punjab
b) Rajasthan
c) Kashmir
d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer: c) Kashmir
Explanation: Rouf is a traditional folk dance from Kashmir.
90. Among Rabindranath Tagore, C.V. Raman, Hargobind Khorana, Homi Jahangir Bhabha which personality has never received ‘Nobel Prize’?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) C.V. Raman
c) Hargobind Khorana
d) Homi Jahangir Bhabha
Answer: d) Homi Jahangir Bhabha
Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore, C.V. Raman, and Hargobind Khorana are Nobel laureates, while Homi Jahangir Bhabha was not.
91. Who was the first woman Chief Minister of a State in free India?
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
c) Sucheta Kriplani
d) Indira Gandhi
Answer: c) Sucheta Kriplani
Explanation: Sucheta Kriplani was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh).
92. The capital of ‘Kyrgyzstan’ is
a) Almaty
b) Tashkent
c) Bishkek
d) Dushanbe
Answer: c) Bishkek
Explanation: Bishkek is the capital city of Kyrgyzstan.
93. ‘Duma’ is the Parliament of
a) France
b) Germany
c) Russia
d) Japan
Answer: c) Russia
Explanation: The Duma is the lower house of the Federal Assembly of Russia.
94. According to Ramayana, who gave the name ‘Indrajit’ to ‘Meghnada’?
a) Ravana
b) Brahma
c) Vishnu
d) Indra
Answer: b) Brahma
Explanation: Lord Brahma bestowed the name Indrajit upon Meghnada after he defeated Indra.
95. Microphone transforms
a) Electrical energy into sound energy
b) Sound energy into electrical energy
c) Mechanical energy into sound energy
d) Light energy into sound energy
Answer: b) Sound energy into electrical energy
Explanation: A microphone converts sound waves into electrical signals.
96. “Presbyopia’ is associated with
a) Ears
b) Nose
c) Eyes
d) Skin
Answer: c) Eyes
Explanation: Presbyopia is a common age-related vision condition that results in the gradual loss of the eye’s ability to focus on nearby objects.
97. “Pedology’ is the study of
a) Rocks
b) Minerals
c) Soils
d) Mountains
Answer: c) Soils
Explanation: Pedology is the scientific study of soils in their natural environment.
98. ‘Irani Trophy’ is associated with
a) Football
b) Hockey
c) Cricket
d) Tennis
Answer: c) Cricket
Explanation: The Irani Trophy is a first-class cricket competition in India.
99. Yuki Bhambhri is associated with
a) Badminton
b) Table Tennis
c) Lawn Tennis
d) Squash
Answer: c) Lawn Tennis
Explanation: Yuki Bhambhri is an Indian professional tennis player.
100. ‘Chak Shehzad’ farmhouse is a place associated with
a) Benazir Bhutto
b) Nawaz Sharif
c) Pervez Musharraf
d) Asif Ali Zardari
Answer: c) General Musharraf
Explanation: Chak Shahzad farmhouse is associated with former Pakistani President Pervez Musharraf.
101. The correct change of number of the given word “Crisis”
a) Crisises
b) Crisises
c) Crises
d) Crisises
Answer: c) Crises
Explanation: The plural form of “crisis” is “crises.”
102. “Shyam has lived here……… ten years.
a) since
b) for
c) from
d) during
Answer: b) for
Explanation: “For” is used to indicate a duration of time.
103. He jumped the well.
a) in
b) into
c) on
d) onto
Answer: b) into
Explanation: “Into” is used to indicate movement from outside to inside.
104. The correct word similar in meaning to the underlined word given in the following sentence. “The fugitive was denied political asylum”
a) refuge
b) shelter
c) sanctuary
d) haven
Answer: a) Refuge
Explanation: Asylum means the protection granted by a state to someone who has left their native country as a political refugee, synonymous with refuge.
105. Correct word for “One who settles a disputes between two parties”
a) Mediator
b) Arbitrator
c) Judge
d) Negotiator
Answer: b) Arbitrator
Explanation: An arbitrator is a person appointed to settle a dispute.
106. The antonym of the word “Adversity”
a) Misfortune
b) Hardship
c) Prosperity
d) Calamity
Answer: c) Prosperity
Explanation: Adversity means difficulties or misfortune, while prosperity means success or flourishing.
107. The correct word for. “To Surpass”
a) Exceed
b) Fall short
c) Underrun
d) Fail
Answer: a) Exceed
Explanation: To surpass means to exceed or be greater than.
108. He …. go School on foot when he was young.
a) would
b) used to
c) should
d) ought to
Answer: b) used to
Explanation: “Used to” indicates a past habit or routine.
109. An area of land used for burying the dead.
a) Graveyard
b) Cemetery
c) Churchyard
d) Burial ground
Answer: b) Cemetery
Explanation: A cemetery is a large burial ground, typically not attached to a church.
110. The meaning of idiom. ‘A close save’ is
a) A narrow victory
b) A narrow escape from accident or disaster
c) A near miss
d) A close call
Answer: b) A narrow escape from accident or disaster
Explanation: “A close save” refers to a situation where one narrowly avoids a negative outcome.
111. Which organisms are known as jokers of the plant kingdom?
a) Bacteria
b) Fungi
c) Mycoplasma
d) Algae
Answer: c) Mycoplasma
Explanation: Mycoplasma are often called “jokers of the plant kingdom” due to their pleomorphic nature (ability to change shape) and lack of a cell wall.
112. Bacteria living at high temperature are known as
a) Psychrophiles
b) Mesophiles
c) Thermophiles
d) Halophiles
Answer: c) Thermophiles
Explanation: Thermophiles are organisms that thrive in relatively high temperatures.
113. The principal structural component of the bacterial cell wall is
a) Cellulose
b) Chitin
c) Peptidoglycan
d) Lignin
Answer: c) Peptidoglycan
Explanation: Peptidoglycan is a polymer consisting of sugars and amino acids that forms a mesh-like layer outside the plasma membrane of most bacteria, forming the cell wall.
114. A jelly like mass of bacterial cells produced by some bacterial species is known as
a) Biofilm
b) Capsule
c) Slime layer
d) Zoogloea
Answer: d) Zoogloea
Explanation: Zoogloea refers to a jelly-like mass formed by certain bacteria, often in wastewater treatment.
115. Citrus canker is caused by
a) Fungus
b) Virus
c) Xanthomonas citri
d) Mycoplasma
Answer: c) Xanthomonas citri
Explanation: Citrus canker is a plant disease caused by the bacterium Xanthomonas citri.
116. The reserve food material in Chlorophyceae is
a) Glycogen
b) Starch
c) Laminarin
d) Floridean starch
Answer: b) Starch
Explanation: The primary reserve food material in green algae (Chlorophyceae) is starch.
117. Which shows a heterotrichous habit?
a) Spirogyra
b) Oedogonium
c) Polysiphonia
d) Chlamydomonas
Answer: c) Polysiphonia
Explanation: Polysiphonia (a red alga) exhibits a heterotrichous habit, meaning it has both prostrate and erect filaments.
118. The Red Sea has abundance of algae belonging to the class
a) Chlorophyceae
b) Phaeophyceae
c) Rhodophyceae
d) Cyanophyceae
Answer: d) Cyanophyceae
Explanation: The Red Sea is named for the presence of the reddish-brown cyanobacterium (blue-green algae) Trichodesmium erythraeum.
119. Chlorophyll a and d are together present in
a) Green algae
b) Brown algae
c) Red algae
d) Blue-green algae
Answer: c) Rhodophyceae
Explanation: Chlorophyll a and d are characteristic pigments found in red algae (Rhodophyceae).
120. Chloroplast in Oedogonium is
a) Spiral
b) Cup-shaped
c) Reticulate
d) Stellate
Answer: c) Reticulate
Explanation: The chloroplast in Oedogonium is typically reticulate (net-like).
121. Auxospore formation is a characteristic feature of
a) Green algae
b) Diatoms
c) Red algae
d) Brown algae
Answer: b) Diatoms
Explanation: Auxospores are specialized cells formed by diatoms during their sexual reproduction to restore their maximum cell size.
122. Chantransia stage is the characteristic stage in the life cycle of
a) Spirogyra
b) Batrachospermum
c) Oedogonium
d) Polysiphonia
Answer: b) Batrachospermum
Explanation: The Chantransia stage is a prominent filamentous stage in the life cycle of the red alga Batrachospermum.
123. Fungi which grows on dung is called
a) Coprophilous
b) Saprophytic
c) Parasitic
d) Symbiotic
Answer: a) Coprophilic
Explanation: Coprophilic fungi are those that grow on animal dung.
124. Poisonous fungi are known as
a) Mushrooms
b) Truffles
c) Toad stools
d) Yeasts
Answer: c) Toad stools
Explanation: “Toadstool” is a common term used to refer to a poisonous or non-edible fungus, especially one with a stalk and cap.
125. Crozier formation is present in
a) Basidiomycetes
b) Ascomycetes
c) Zygomycetes
d) Deuteromycetes
Answer: b) Ascomycetes
Explanation: Crozier formation is a characteristic hook-like structure formed during sexual reproduction in Ascomycetes.
126. Among Coacervate, Viroids, Mycoplasma, PPLO Bacteria which one evolved first?
a) Coacervate
b) Viroids
c) Mycoplasma
d) PPLO Bacteria
Answer: a) Coacervate
Explanation: Coacervates are considered to be primitive structures that might have played a role in the origin of life, predating more complex life forms like bacteria or viruses.
127. Protovirus can be described as
a) A free-living organism
b) A free-living gene
c) A parasitic gene
d) A viral precursor
Answer: b) A free-living gene
Explanation: A protovirus is a theoretical concept suggesting that viruses might have evolved from free-living genetic elements.
128. Earth originated about
a) 1 billion years ago
b) 2 billion years ago
c) 3 billion years ago
d) 5 billion years ago
Answer: d) 5 billion years ago
Explanation: The Earth originated approximately 4.54 billion years ago, which is close to 5 billion years.
129. Theory of spontaneous generation was criticized by
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Francesco Redi
c) Lazzaro Spallanzani
d) All of the above
Answer: b) Redi
Explanation: Francesco Redi performed experiments in the 17th century that challenged the theory of spontaneous generation.
130. Isolation prevents
a) Disease spread
b) Evolution
c) Breeding
d) Extinction
Answer: c) Breeding
Explanation: In biology, reproductive isolation mechanisms prevent interbreeding between different species or populations.
131. Agaricus is also known as
a) Bracket fungi
b) Puffballs
c) Gill fungi
d) Moulds
Answer: c) Gill fungi
Explanation: Agaricus, commonly known as the button mushroom, is a type of gill fungi.
132. Virus-free tissue is called
a) Meristem
b) Callus
c) Apical meristem
d) Explant
Answer: c) Apical meristem
Explanation: The apical meristem of plants is often virus-free even in infected plants, making it useful for tissue culture to produce virus-free plants.
133. Nucellus tissue is
a) Haploid
b) Diploid
c) Triploid
d) Polyploid
Answer: b) Diploid
Explanation: The nucellus is part of the ovule in flowering plants and is diploid (2n).
134. Dormant phase of potato blight is
a) Zoospore
b) Oospore
c) Sporangium
d) Chlamydospore
Answer: b) Oospore
Explanation: The oospore is the overwintering (dormant) structure of Phytophthora infestans, the pathogen causing potato blight.
135. Ergot affects
a) Leaves
b) Roots
c) Stem
d) Flower
Answer: d) Flower
Explanation: Ergot is a disease of cereal grains, especially rye, caused by the fungus Claviceps purpurea, which primarily infects the flowers.
136. Vernalisation helps the plants to grow.
a) Short day
b) Long day
c) Neutral day
d) Any day
Answer: b) Long day
Explanation: Vernalization is a process of exposing plants to a period of cold to induce flowering, often facilitating growth in long-day conditions.
137. Water transporting soil is
a) Clayey
b) Sandy
c) Loamy
d) Alluvial
Answer: d) Alluvial
Explanation: Alluvial soils are formed by the deposition of sediment by rivers and are often good at transporting water.
138. Water melon belongs to
a) Solanaceae
b) Cucurbitaceae
c) Malvaceae
d) Poaceae
Answer: b) Cucurbitaceae
Explanation: Watermelon belongs to the family Cucurbitaceae, which includes gourds, melons, and squashes.
139. Canker is ………… disease.
a) Systemic
b) Localized
c) Necrotic
d) Viral
Answer: c) Necrotic
Explanation: Canker is a plant disease characterized by localized dead areas (necrosis) on stems, branches, or trunks.
140. Gibberellin produces
a) Dwarf plants
b) Tall plants
c) Bushy plants
d) Flowering plants
Answer: b) Tall plants
Explanation: Gibberellins are plant hormones that promote stem elongation and thus lead to taller plants.
141. Pigments acts as a reaction centre during photosynthesis.
a) P680
b) P700
c) Carotenoids
d) Phycobilins
Answer: b) P700
Explanation: P700 is the reaction center chlorophyll a molecule in Photosystem I (PSI).
142. Casparian strip occurs in
a) Epidermis
b) Cortex
c) Endodermis
d) Pericycle
Answer: c) Endodermis
Explanation: The Casparian strip is a band of suberin in the cell walls of the endodermis, regulating water and solute movement.
143. Organelle related with genetic engineering is
a) Mitochondria
b) Chloroplast
c) Plasmid
d) Nucleus
Answer: c) Plasmid
Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular DNA molecules in bacteria widely used as vectors in genetic engineering.
144. Haploid plants can be obtained from culturing.
a) Root tip
b) Stem tip
c) Pollen grain
d) Ovule
Answer: c) Pollen grain
Explanation: Haploid plants can be produced through anther or pollen culture, as pollen grains are haploid.
145. Rafflesia is found in
a) India
b) China
c) Malaysia
d) Africa
Answer: c) Malaysia
Explanation: Rafflesia, known for producing the world’s largest flower, is found in rainforests of Southeast Asia, including Malaysia.
146. Fossils are found in
a) Igneous Rocks
b) Metamorphic Rocks
c) Sedimentary Rocks
d) All types of Rocks
Answer: c) Sedimentary Rocks
Explanation: Fossils are typically found in sedimentary rocks because the conditions for their formation are ideal in these rock types.
147. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of
a) Fern
b) Cycas
c) Pinus
d) Gnetum
Answer: b) Cycas
Explanation: Girdling leaf traces (also known as foliar traces) are a distinctive anatomical feature of the stem in Cycas, a genus of cycads.
148. When chlorophyll is burnt, which element is obtained?
a) Fe
b) Mg
c) Cu
d) Zn
Answer: b) Mg
Explanation: Magnesium (Mg) is a central atom in the chlorophyll molecule.
149. Genes are made by
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Lipids
d) Polynucleotides
Answer: d) Polynucleotides
Explanation: Genes are segments of DNA, which is a polynucleotide.
150. Movement of cell against concentration gradient is called
a) Diffusion
b) Osmosis
c) Active transport
d) Facilitated diffusion
Answer: c) Active transport
Explanation: Active transport moves substances across a cell membrane against their concentration gradient, requiring energy.
151. Evergreen trees remain throughout the year on account of
a) Continuous leaf production
b) Leaves falling in small number intervals
c) Retention of all leaves
d) Adaptation to climate
Answer: b) Leaves falling in small number intervals
Explanation: Evergreen trees continuously shed and replace leaves throughout the year, rather than all at once, giving them a perpetually green appearance.
152. Pollination is best defined as
a) Transfer of pollen from Anther to Stigma.
b) Fertilization process
c) Seed dispersal
d) Flower development
Answer: a) Transfer of pollen from Anther to Stigma.
Explanation: Pollination is the process by which pollen is transferred from the anther to the stigma, enabling fertilization.
153. Our skin when exposed to excess sunlight becomes dark. This is because of our skin pigments called
a) Hemoglobin
b) Melanin
c) Carotene
d) Xanthophyll
Answer: b) Melanin
Explanation: Melanin is the pigment responsible for skin, hair, and eye color, and its production increases upon sun exposure, leading to tanning.
154. Excessive bleeding from an injury is due to deficiency of
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin K
Answer: d) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting, and its deficiency can lead to excessive bleeding.
155. Which disease is spread by house fly
a) Malaria
b) Dengue
c) Typhoid
d) Cholera
Answer: c) Typhoid
Explanation: Houseflies can transmit various diseases, including typhoid, by carrying pathogens on their bodies.
156. The covering of lungs is called
a) Pericardium
b) Peritoneum
c) Pleural membrane
d) Meninges
Answer: c) Pleural membrane
Explanation: The lungs are enclosed by a double-layered membrane called the pleural membrane or pleura.
157. The word ‘Species’ was coined by
a) Carolus Linnaeus
b) John Ray
c) Charles Darwin
d) Ernst Mayr
Answer: b) John Ray
Explanation: The term “species” was first formally defined by John Ray in his classification of plants and animals.
158. Which secretion associated with digestion does not have enzymes?
a) Saliva
b) Gastric juice
c) Pancreatic juice
d) Bile
Answer: d) Bile
Explanation: Bile, produced by the liver, aids in fat digestion by emulsification but does not contain digestive enzymes.
159. The character which was not in the direction of evolution of human species is
a) Increase in brain size
b) Bipedalism
c) Shortening of jaws
d) Loss of body hair
Answer: c) Shortening of jaws
Explanation: While jaw size changed with diet, the direct “shortening” isn’t the primary evolutionary trend in the context of human species evolution compared to brain size increase or bipedalism.
160. Pebrine disease in silkworm is caused by
a) Virus
b) Bacteria
c) Protozoa
d) Fungus
Answer: c) Nosema
Explanation: Pebrine disease in silkworms is caused by the microsporidian parasite Nosema bombycis.
161. ______ is a symbiont.
a) Amoeba
b) Paramecium
c) Trichonympha
d) Plasmodium
Answer: c) Trichonympha
Explanation: Trichonympha is a flagellated protozoan that lives symbiotically in the gut of termites, helping them digest cellulose.
162. Free swimming larva of the comb jelly
a) Planula
b) Trochophore
c) Ephyra
d) Cydippid
Answer: c) Ephyra
Explanation: The Ephyra larva is characteristic of certain jellyfish (Scyphozoa), not comb jellies (Ctenophora).
163. Primary host of liverfluke is
a) Snail
b) Fish
c) Human
d) Sheep
Answer: d) Sheep
Explanation: Sheep are definitive (primary) hosts for the liver fluke, Fasciola hepatica.
164. Related species which are reproductively isolated but morphologically similar are called
a) Sibling
b) Subspecies
c) Races
d) Varieties
Answer: a) Sibling
Explanation: Sibling species are closely related species that are reproductively isolated but are morphologically almost indistinguishable.
165. Golden age of Reptiles is
a) Paleozoic
b) Mesozoic
c) Cenozoic
d) Precambrian
Answer: b) Mesozoic
Explanation: The Mesozoic Era is often referred to as the “Age of Reptiles” due to the dominance of dinosaurs and other reptiles.
166. Foramen of Panizzae is found in the heart of
a) Fish
b) Frog
c) Crocodile
d) Bird
Answer: c) Crocodile
Explanation: The Foramen of Panizzae is a specialized opening between the left and right aortas in the heart of crocodilians.
167. Polycythemia refers to an abnormal increase in the number of
a) Leukocytes
b) Erythrocytes
c) Platelets
d) Lymphocytes
Answer: b) Erythrocytes
Explanation: Polycythemia is a condition in which there is an abnormally high number of red blood cells (erythrocytes) in the blood.
168. ‘Preen Gland’ occurs in
a) Mammals
b) Birds
c) Reptiles
d) Amphibians
Answer: b) Aves
Explanation: The preen gland (or uropygial gland) is a sebaceous gland found in most birds (Aves).
169. Antiserum contains
a) Antigens
b) Antibodies
c) Vaccines
d) Toxins
Answer: b) Antibodies
Explanation: Antiserum is a blood serum containing antibodies against specific antigens, obtained from an animal that has been immunized.
170. In meiosis, crossing over occurs during
a) Prophase-I
b) Metaphase-I
c) Anaphase-I
d) Telophase-I
Answer: a) Prophase-I
Explanation: Crossing over, the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, occurs during prophase I of meiosis.
171. Insect’s eggs are
a) Microlecithal
b) Macrolecithal
c) Centrolecithal
d) Isolecithal
Answer: c) Centrolecithal
Explanation: Insect eggs are typically centrolecithal, meaning the yolk is concentrated in the center of the egg.
172. Sleeping sickness disease is transmitted by
a) Mosquito
b) Housefly
c) Tse-tse fly
d) Sandfly
Answer: c) Tse-tse fly
Explanation: African sleeping sickness (trypanosomiasis) is transmitted by the tsetse fly.
173. Which one is not a component of male genital system in cockroach?
a) Testes
b) Vas deferens
c) Seminal vesicles
d) Colleterial gland
Answer: d) Colleterial gland
Explanation: Colleterial glands are part of the female reproductive system in cockroaches, involved in forming the ootheca (egg case).
174. Which one is absent in the stomach of camel?
a) Rumen
b) Reticulum
c) Omasum
d) Abomasum
Answer: c) Omasum
Explanation: Camels have a three-chambered stomach, lacking the omasum found in typical ruminants.
175. Glochidium larva belongs to
a) Annelida
b) Mollusca
c) Arthropoda
d) Echinodermata
Answer: b) Unio
Explanation: Glochidium larvae are the parasitic larval stage of freshwater mussels (Unio is a genus of freshwater mussels), which belong to the phylum Mollusca.
176. Poison glands of snakes are homogenous to
a) Salivary glands of mammals
b) Pancreatic glands of mammals
c) Thyroid glands of mammals
d) Adrenal glands of mammals
Answer: a) Salivary glands of vertebrates
Explanation: Snake venom glands are modified salivary glands.
177. Monotremes are unique mammals because they.
a) Give birth to live young
b) Lay eggs
c) Have a pouch
d) Are aquatic
Answer: b) Lay eggs
Explanation: Monotremes (like platypuses and echidnas) are the only mammals that lay eggs instead of giving birth to live young.
178. Most intelligent mammals are
a) Humans
b) Chimpanzees
c) Dolphins
d) Elephants
Answer: c) Dolphins
Explanation: While humans are considered the most intelligent, dolphins are known for their high intelligence, complex social structures, and communication abilities.
179. Most fish do not sink in water because of the presence of
a) Gills
b) Fins
c) Air sacks and Air bladder
d) Scales
Answer: c) Air sacks and Air bladder
Explanation: The swim bladder (or gas bladder) in most fish helps them control their buoyancy and prevent sinking.
180. Which amino acid has single codon?
a) Methionine
b) Tryptophan
c) Leucine
d) Arginine
Answer: b) Tryptophan
Explanation: Tryptophan (UGG) and Methionine (AUG) are the only two amino acids encoded by a single codon. The given answer is Tryptophan.
181. Cancer causing genes are called
a) Suppressor genes
b) Oncogenes
c) Proto-oncogenes
d) Tumor genes
Answer: b) Oncogenes
Explanation: Oncogenes are genes that have the potential to cause cancer.
182. The upper heart chambers are called
a) Ventricles
b) Atria
c) Aorta
d) Pulmonary arteries
Answer: b) Atria
Explanation: The upper chambers of the heart are called the atria (singular: atrium), which receive blood.
183. Terrestrial insects produce
a) Urea
b) Ammonia
c) Uric acid
d) Creatinine
Answer: c) Uric acid
Explanation: Terrestrial insects excrete nitrogenous waste primarily as uric acid, which conserves water.
184. Which Vitamin is destroyed by cooking?
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
Answer: c) Vitamin C
Explanation: Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) is water-soluble and heat-sensitive, making it prone to destruction during cooking.
185. The Variola Major and Variola Minor are the two viruses responsible for which dreaded infectious disease?
a) Measles
b) Chickenpox
c) Small pox
d) Mumps
Answer: c) Small pox
Explanation: Variola major and Variola minor are the two clinical forms of the smallpox virus.
186. The ‘Earthworms’ and ‘Leeches’ respire through
a) Gills
b) Lungs
c) Trachea
d) Skin
Answer: d) Skin
Explanation: Earthworms and leeches respire cutaneously, meaning they exchange gases through their moist skin.
187. Who discovered ‘Hybridoma Technology’?
a) Louis Pasteur
b) Robert Koch
c) Kohler and Milstein
d) Edward Jenner
Answer: c) Kohler and Milstein
Explanation: Georges J.F. Köhler and César Milstein developed the hybridoma technique for producing monoclonal antibodies.
188. ‘Retinol’ is commonly known as
a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B
c) Vitamin C
d) Vitamin D
Answer: a) Vitamin A
Explanation: Retinol is a form of Vitamin A.
189. ‘Contractile vacuole’ is the excretory organ of
a) Hydra
b) Earthworm
c) Amoeba
d) Planaria
Answer: c) Amoeba
Explanation: The contractile vacuole in Amoeba and other freshwater protozoa is primarily involved in osmoregulation and excretion of excess water.
190. ‘Olfactory region’ of brain (Forebrain) is associated with
a) Sight
b) Hearing
c) Smell
d) Taste
Answer: c) Smell
Explanation: The olfactory region of the brain is responsible for processing the sense of smell.