1. Most important characteristic of philosophical method is
a) Analysis & Synthesis
b) Any form of organic disorder or dysfunction
c) Naturalism
d) J.J. Rousseau
Answer: a) Analysis & Synthesis
Explanation: Philosophical method heavily relies on breaking down complex ideas (analysis) and then building coherent arguments (synthesis).
2. Impairment refers to
a) Analysis & Synthesis
b) Any form of organic disorder or dysfunction
c) Naturalism
d) J.J. Rousseau
Answer: b) Any form of organic disorder or dysfunction
Explanation: Impairment denotes a problem with a body part or function.
3. Who raised the slogan “Back to Nature”?
a) Analysis & Synthesis
b) Any form of organic disorder or dysfunction
c) Naturalism
d) J.J. Rousseau
Answer: d) J.J. Rousseau
Explanation: Jean-Jacques Rousseau was a prominent proponent of returning to a more natural way of life.
4. Who said, “Reverse the usual practice and you will almost always do right”
a) Analysis & Synthesis
b) Any form of organic disorder or dysfunction
c) Naturalism
d) J.J. Rousseau
Answer: d) J.J. Rousseau
Explanation: This quote is attributed to Jean-Jacques Rousseau, reflecting his unconventional views.
5. Which school calls the classroom unnecessary?
a) Analysis & Synthesis
b) Any form of organic disorder or dysfunction
c) Naturalism
d) J.J. Rousseau
Answer: c) Naturalism
Explanation: Naturalism in education often emphasizes learning through direct experience in natural settings rather than formal classrooms.
6. The evaluation of personality is best made through the use of a/an-
a) Power test
b) Reading, arithmetic
c) Writing &
d) meaning of valid knowledge
Answer: a) Power test
Explanation: Power tests are designed to assess the depth of a person’s knowledge or ability without time constraints.
7. Learning disability refers to specific problem in
a) Power test
b) Reading, Writing & arithmetic
c) meaning of valid knowledge
d) Authenticity, Character & Purpose of the author
Answer: b) Reading, Writing & arithmetic
Explanation: Learning disabilities specifically impact a person’s ability to learn and use academic skills like reading, writing, and arithmetic.
8. Pramana in Indian Philosophy means
a) Power test
b) Reading, arithmetic
c) Writing &
d) meaning of valid knowledge
Answer: d) meaning of valid knowledge
Explanation: Pramana refers to the means by which valid and reliable knowledge can be acquired.
9. The arguments presented in favour of the Vedas include
a) Authenticity, Character & Purpose of the author
b) Anekantvada & Ekantvada
c) Protect teachers whose political views differ sharply from those of the community
d) Intelligent, Hard-working & disciplined
Answer: a) Authenticity, Character & Purpose of the author
Explanation: Arguments supporting the Vedas often highlight their divine origin and the integrity of their authors.
10. The Jain philosophy concepts are
a) Authenticity, Character & Purpose of the author
b) Anekantvada & Ekantvada
c) Protect teachers whose political views differ sharply from those of the community
d) Intelligent, Hard-working & disciplined
Answer: b) Anekantvada & Ekantvada
Explanation: Anekantvada means “non-one-sidedness” or “many-sided reality,” suggesting truth and reality are perceived differently from diverse points of view.
Ekantvada (the opposite) refers to a one-sided or absolute viewpoint
11. Teacher tenure laws can best be justified because they
a) Protect teachers whose political views differ sharply from those of the community
b) Intelligent, Hard-working & disciplined
c) Eternal -Self
d) Eternal
Answer: a) Protect teachers whose political views differ sharply from those of the community
Explanation: Teacher tenure is often designed to protect teachers from arbitrary dismissal, including for their political views.
12. What type of children would you like to teach?
a) Intelligent, Hard-working & disciplined
b) Eternal -Self
c) Eternal
d) should himself try to know the reason and remove that
Answer: a) Intelligent, Hard-working & disciplined
Explanation: This option describes desirable qualities in students from a teacher’s perspective.
13. Buddha’s Theory of Self is known as
a) Eternal -Self
b) Eternal
c) A class party
d) The day’s schedule
Answer: a) Eternal -Self
Explanation: In Buddhism, the concept of a permanent, unchanging self (atman) is generally rejected.
14. Self according to Buddha is
a) Eternal
b) A class party
c) The day’s schedule
d) Non-eternal / No-self (Anatta)
Answer: a) Eternal
Explanation: This option refers to the Buddhist concept of self as not being eternal or unchanging.
15. All of the following are appropriate area for pupil-teacher planning except
a) The day’s schedule
b) The selection of committees
c) A class party
d) The selection of recreational reading
Answer: c) A class party
Explanation: Pupil-teacher planning typically focuses on academic or classroom-related activities, not social events.
16. What a teacher should do if students do not take interest in lesson learning?
a) should himself try to know the reason and remove that
b) Project method
c) beliefs, convictions & sacrifices
d) reasoning
Answer: a) should himself try to know the reason and remove that
Explanation: A proactive teacher should investigate the cause of disinterest and address it.
17. Which is best teaching method?
a) Project method
b) beliefs, convictions & sacrifices
c) reasoning
d) his behaviour
Answer: a) Project method
Explanation: The project method is often considered effective as it promotes active and experiential learning.
18. Value is accompanied with
a) beliefs, convictions & sacrifices
b) reasoning
c) his behaviour
d) Basic education
Answer: a) beliefs, convictions & sacrifices
Explanation: Values are deeply intertwined with a person’s beliefs, convictions, and sometimes require sacrifices.
19. In a thinker the value judgement is based upon
a) reasoning
b) his behaviour
c) Basic education
d) Naturalism, Idealism & Pragmatism
Answer: a) reasoning
Explanation: For a thinker, value judgments are typically formed through logical thought and reasoning.
20. What quality of a teacher have lasting impact on student?
a) his behaviour
b) Basic education
c) Naturalism, Idealism & Pragmatism
d) Objective of Education
Answer: a) his behaviour
Explanation: A teacher’s behavior and conduct serve as a significant example and influence on students.
21. Among Integral Education, Basic education, Education for man making and Education for international understanding which type represent M.K. Gandhi’s contribution to education?
a) Integral Education
b) Basic education
c) Education for man making
d) Education for international understanding
Answer: b) Basic education
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy of education is famously associated with the concept of Basic Education (Nai Talim).
22. Characteristics of Vivekananda’s philosophy of education includes
a) Naturalism, Idealism & Pragmatism
b) Objective of Education
c) teaching machines
d) like a friend
Answer: a) Naturalism, Idealism & Pragmatism
Explanation: Vivekananda’s educational philosophy incorporated elements from naturalism, idealism, and pragmatism.
23. What should be kept in mind while forming the curriculum?
a) Naturalism, Idealism & Pragmatism
b) Objective of Education
c) teaching machines
d) like a friend
Answer: b) Objective of Education
Explanation: The objectives of education should guide the development of the curriculum.
24. Immediate feedback is an essential characteristic of
a) Naturalism, Idealism & Pragmatism
b) Objective of Education
c) teaching machines
d) like a friend
Answer: c) teaching machines
Explanation: Teaching machines are designed to provide learners with immediate feedback on their responses.
25. How a teacher should behave with his pupils?
a) Naturalism, Idealism & Pragmatism
b) Objective of Education
c) teaching machines
d) like a friend
Answer: d) like a friend
Explanation: A friendly and approachable demeanor fosters a positive learning environment.
26. The least important challenge to Indian education today is presented by the
a) poverty of the masses
b) Democracy
c) Family
d) Powers of Retention
Answer: a) poverty of the masses
Explanation: While poverty is a significant issue, the question asks for the least important challenge among the given options in the context of Indian education challenges as phrased in the document.
27. Sociology of education is based on the faith in
a) poverty of the masses
b) Democracy
c) Family
d) Powers of Retention
Answer: b) Democracy
Explanation: Sociology of education often explores the role of education in a democratic society and its impact on social structures.
28. Among School, Factory, Family and Political party which is a primary group?
a) School
b) Factory
c) Family
d) Political party
Answer: c) Family
Explanation: A primary group is characterized by intimate, face-to-face association and cooperation, with the family being the prime example.
29. Overlearning tends to strengthen an individual’s
a) poverty of the masses
b) Democracy
c) Family
d) Powers of Retention
Answer: d) Powers of Retention
Explanation: Overlearning, or practicing beyond the point of mastery, enhances memory and recall.
30. Community means a group of individuals, who are
a) poverty of the masses
b) Democracy
c) Informally organised
d) Powers of Retention
Answer: c) Informally organised
Explanation: A community often refers to a group of people who share common interests or live in the same area and interact informally.
31. Among U.S.Open, French Open, Australian Open and Wimbledon which Tennis Tournaments is played on grass courts?
a) U.S. Open
b) French Open
c) Australian Open
d) Wimbledon
Answer: d) Wimbledon
Explanation: Wimbledon is the only Grand Slam tennis tournament played on grass courts.
32. The Satluj is a part of which major river system?
a) Brahmaputra
b) Ganga
c) Indus
d) Yamuna
Answer: c) Indus
Explanation: The Satluj River is one of the five main tributaries of the Indus River.
33. The country smallest in area is
a) Vatican City
b) Monaco
c) Nauru
d) Tuvalu
Answer: a) Vatican City
Explanation: Vatican City is the smallest independent state in the world, both in area and population.
34. How many main PURANAS are there?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 16
d) 18
Answer: d) 18
Explanation: There are 18 main Mahapuranas in Hindu religious texts.
35. AIDS day is celebrated on
a) October 24th
b) December 1st
c) January 1st
d) March 8th
Answer: b) 1st December
Explanation: World AIDS Day is observed annually on December 1st.
36. Leukaemia is a disease also called
a) Heart Attack
b) Blood Cancer
c) Diabetes
d) Malaria
Answer: b) Blood Cancer
Explanation: Leukaemia is a cancer of the blood-forming tissues.
37. The chief constituent of Gobar Gas is
a) Carbon Dioxide
b) Methane
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen
Answer: b) Methane
Explanation: Methane is the primary component of biogas, including Gobar Gas (cow dung gas).
38. RadCliffe line demarcates the boundary between
a) India-China
b) India-Pakistan
c) India-Nepal
d) India-Bangladesh
Answer: b) India-Pakistan
Explanation: The Radcliffe Line was the boundary demarcation line between the Indian and Pakistani portions of the Punjab and Bengal provinces of British India.
39. Which mountains are said to be the World’s oldest in India?
a) Himalayas
b) Western Ghats
c) Aravallis
d) Eastern Ghats
Answer: c) Aravallis
Explanation: The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest mountain ranges in the world, located in western India.
40. “Cholas” ruled their kingdom with the help of
a) Local Chiefs
b) Council of Ministers
c) Village Panchayats
d) Military Generals
Answer: b) Council of Ministers
Explanation: The Chola administration was well-organized and assisted by a council of ministers and other officials.
41. The highest institution of Panchayati Raj in India is
a) Zila Parishad
b) Panchayat Samiti
c) Gram Panchayat
d) Nyaya Panchayat
Answer: a) Zila Parishad
Explanation: The Zila Parishad is the highest tier of the Panchayati Raj system at the district level.
42. Which is the smallest planet in solar system?
a) Mercury
b) Mars
c) Venus
d) Earth
Answer: a) Mercury
Explanation: Mercury is the smallest planet in our solar system.
43. How many elected members are there in the Rajya Sabha?
a) 238
b) 250
c) 245
d) 233
Answer: a) 238
Explanation: The Rajya Sabha can have a maximum of 250 members, of whom 238 are elected.
44. How many times Indian President has been impeached by the Parliament?
a) Never
b) Once
c) Twice
d) Thrice
Answer: a) Never
Explanation: No Indian President has been impeached by the Parliament to date.
45. Which is highest Civilian Award of India?
a) Bharat Ratna
b) Padma Vibhushan
c) Padma Bhushan
d) Padma Shri
Answer: a) Bharat Ratna
Explanation: The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of the Republic of India.
46. The British Prime Minister during whose period India achieved independence was
a) Clement Attlee
b) Winston Churchill
c) Neville Chamberlain
d) Harold Macmillan
Answer: a) Clement Attlee
Explanation: Clement Attlee was the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom when India gained independence in 1947.
47. ‘Penguins’ are found
a) In Antarctica
b) In Arctic
c) In Africa
d) In Asia
Answer: a) In Antarctica
Explanation: Penguins are primarily found in the Southern Hemisphere, with most species inhabiting Antarctica and surrounding sub-Antarctic islands.
48. Which is the most important raw materials used predominantly in the production of cement?
a) Limestone
b) Gypsum
c) Clay
d) Bauxite
Answer: a) Limestone
Explanation: Limestone is the most important raw material used in the production of cement.
49. Ornithology deals with
a) Birds
b) Insects
c) Fish
d) Reptiles
Answer: a) Birds
Explanation: Ornithology is the branch of zoology that deals with the study of birds.
50. Galvanised iron is made by coating iron with
a) Zinc
b) Copper
c) Aluminium
d) Tin
Answer: a) Zinc
Explanation: Galvanization is the process of applying a protective zinc coating to steel or iron to prevent rusting.
51. In which game is Ranji Trophy won?
a) Cricket
b) Football
c) Hockey
d) Badminton
Answer: a) Cricket
Explanation: The Ranji Trophy is a domestic first-class cricket championship played in India.
52. The erstwhile State of Bilaspur was merged with Himachal in the year
a) 1954
b) 1966
c) 1971
d) 1948
Answer: a) 1954
Explanation: The state of Bilaspur was merged with Himachal Pradesh in 1954.
53. Full form of CNG is
a) Compressed Natural Gas
b) Carbon Nitrogen Gas
c) Compacted Natural Gas
d) Chemical Natural Gas
Answer: a) Compressed Natural Gas
Explanation: CNG stands for Compressed Natural Gas, a fossil fuel substitute for gasoline.
54. All the ministers are collectively responsible to the legislature. It is in the
a) Parliamentary System
b) Presidential System
c) Dictatorship
d) Monarchy
Answer: a) Parliamentary System
Explanation: Collective responsibility of the cabinet to the legislature is a key feature of a parliamentary system.
55. Fascism believed in
a) Force
b) Democracy
c) Socialism
d) Liberalism
Answer: a) Force
Explanation: Fascism is a political ideology characterized by dictatorial power, forcible suppression of opposition, and strong regimentation of society and economy.
56. When were the first general election held in India?
a) 1952
b) 1947
c) 1950
d) 1957
Answer: a) 1952
Explanation: The first general elections in independent India were held in 1951-52.
57. The Planning Commission in India is headed by
a) The Prime Minister
b) The President
c) The Finance Minister
d) The Planning Minister
Answer: a) The Prime Minister
Explanation: The Prime Minister of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog).
58. Who is the author of famous novel “War and Peace”?
a) Leo Tolstoy
b) Fyodor Dostoevsky
c) Anton Chekhov
d) Ivan Turgenev
Answer: a) Leo Tolstoy
Explanation: “War and Peace” is a widely acclaimed novel by the Russian author Leo Tolstoy.
59. In which century did the famous Chinese pilgrim ‘Fahien’ visit India?
a) 5th Century A.D.
b) 3rd Century A.D.
c) 7th Century A.D.
d) 1st Century A.D.
Answer: a) 5th Century A.D.
Explanation: Faxian (Fahien) was a Chinese Buddhist monk who traveled to India during the early 5th century.
60. When was the capital of India shifted from Calcutta to Delhi?
a) 1911
b) 1905
c) 1927
d) 1931
Answer: a) 1911
Explanation: The capital of British India was officially shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911.
61. Apoptosis is
a) Programmed death of a cell
b) Has proteins and some proteins on the surface
c) Pachytene
d) Multiple Allelism
Answer: a) Programmed death of a cell
Explanation: Apoptosis is a process of programmed cell death that occurs in multicellular organisms.
62. The fluid mosaic of cell membrane postulates that a lipid bilayer
a) Has proteins and some proteins on the surface
b) Pachytene
c) Multiple Allelism
d) H.J. Muller
Answer: a) Has proteins and some proteins on the surface
Explanation: The fluid mosaic model describes the cell membrane as a mosaic of components, including phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins, that give the membrane a fluid character.
63. During meiosis, crossing over occurs at
a) Pachytene
b) Multiple Allelism
c) H.J. Muller
d) Hybrid Vigour
Answer: a) Pachytene
Explanation: Crossing over, the exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes, occurs during the pachytene stage of prophase I in meiosis.
64. Inheritance of ‘ABO’ group shows
a) Multiple Allelism
b) H.J. Muller
c) Hybrid Vigour
d) Monosomic Chromosome
Answer: a) Multiple Allelism
Explanation: The ABO blood group system is an example of multiple allelism, where more than two alleles control a trait.
65. Induction of mutations by radiations was first experimentally demonstrated by
a) H.J. Muller
b) Hybrid Vigour
c) Monosomic Chromosome
d) UAA
Answer: a) H.J. Muller
Explanation: Hermann Joseph Muller was an American geneticist who won the Nobel Prize for his work on the induction of mutations by X-rays.
66. Heterosis refers to
a) Hybrid Vigour
b) Monosomic Chromosome
c) UAA
d) Golgi Bodies
Answer: a) Hybrid Vigour
Explanation: Heterosis, also known as hybrid vigor, is the improved or increased function of any biological quality in a hybrid offspring.
67. Turner’s syndrome is due to
a) Monosomic Chromosome
b) UAA
c) Golgi Bodies
d) Transposons
Answer: a) Monosomic Chromosome
Explanation: Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal condition that affects only females and results from a missing or incomplete X chromosome (monosomy X).
68. Among AUG, UAA, GGU and UUU which one is terminator codon?
a) AUG
b) UAA
c) GGU
d) UUU
Answer: b) UAA
Explanation: UAA is one of the three stop codons in the genetic code that signal the termination of protein synthesis.
69. In which cell organelle the post-translational processing of secretory proteins occurs?
a) Golgi Bodies
b) Transposons
c) Alec Jeffreys
d) M.J. Schleiden & T. Schwann
Answer: a) Golgi Bodies
Explanation: The Golgi apparatus is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins for secretion or delivery to other organelles.
70. Name an enzyme carrier protein associated with cell membrane?
a) Permease
b) Transposons
c) Alec Jeffreys
d) M.J. Schleiden & T. Schwann
Answer: a) Permease
Explanation: Permeases are a type of membrane transport protein that facilitates the movement of specific molecules across a cell membrane.
71. The genes that keep on changing their location on chromosomes are called
a) Transposons
b) Alec Jeffreys
c) M.J. Schleiden & T. Schwann
d) Plasmid
Answer: a) Transposons
Explanation: Transposons are DNA sequences that can change their position within the genome.
72. The process of DNA fingerprinting was developed by
a) Transposons
b) Alec Jeffreys
c) M.J. Schleiden & T. Schwann
d) Plasmid
Answer: b) Alec Jeffreys
Explanation: Sir Alec Jeffreys developed the technique of DNA fingerprinting.
73 Who put forward the “Cell Theory”?
a) Transposons
b) Alec Jeffreys
c) M.J. Schleiden & T. Schwann
d) Plasmid
Answer: c) M.J. Schleiden & T. Schwann
Explanation: Matthias Jakob Schleiden and Theodor Schwann are credited with formulating the cell theory.
74. Generally, the genes which confer antibiotic resistance to bacteria are located on
a) Transposons
b) Alec Jeffreys
c) M.J. Schleiden & T. Schwann
d) Plasmid
Answer: d) Plasmid
Explanation: Plasmids are small, extrachromosomal DNA molecules that often carry genes for antibiotic resistance in bacteria.
75. Which group of organisms contain peptidoglycan or mucopeptides in their cell wall?
a) Bacteria
b) Chloroplast, Peroxisome & Mitochondrion
c) Incomplete dominance
d) Suicidal bags
Answer: a) Bacteria
Explanation: Peptidoglycan (or mucopeptides) is a major component of the cell walls of bacteria.
76. Which organelles are involved in photorespiration?
a) Bacteria
b) Chloroplast, Peroxisome & Mitochondrion
c) Incomplete dominance
d) Suicidal bags
Answer: b) Chloroplast, Peroxisome & Mitochondrion
Explanation: Photorespiration is a process that involves the coordinated action of chloroplasts, peroxisomes, and mitochondria.
77. RR(red) is crossed with rr (white). All the Rr offsprings are pink. The type of genetic interaction involved is
a) Incomplete dominance
b) Suicidal bags
c) Ergastic substances
d) Same code is applicable to all living systems
Answer: a) Incomplete dominance
Explanation: Incomplete dominance occurs when the heterozygous genotype expresses a phenotype that is intermediate between the dominant and recessive phenotypes.
78. Lysosomes are also known as
a) Incomplete dominance
b) Suicidal bags
c) Ergastic substances
d) Same code is applicable to all living systems
Answer: b) Suicidal bags
Explanation: Lysosomes are often called “suicidal bags” because they contain digestive enzymes that can break down cellular waste and debris.
79. Several chemical compounds occur as non-living inclusions in the cytoplasm and cell sap. These compounds are known as
a) Incomplete dominance
b) Suicidal bags
c) Ergastic substances
d) Same code is applicable to all living systems
Answer: c) Ergastic substances
Explanation: Ergastic substances are non-living products of cell metabolism that are stored in the cytoplasm or cell sap.
80. The genetic code is said to be universal because
a) Incomplete dominance
b) Suicidal bags
c) Ergastic substances
d) Same code is applicable to all living systems
Answer: d) Same code is applicable to all living systems
Explanation: The genetic code is universal, meaning that the same codons specify the same amino acids in almost all living organisms.
81. Cephaleuros virescens, a parasite on tea plants belongs to
a) Algae
b) Kidston & Lang
c) Marsilea & Azolla
d) Amphithecium
Answer: a) Algae
Explanation: Cephaleuros virescens is a parasitic green alga that causes red rust disease in tea and other plants.
82. The fossil pteriodophyte, Rhynia was discovered by
a) Algae
b) Kidston & Lang
c) Marsilea & Azolla
d) Amphithecium
Answer: b) Kidston & Lang
Explanation: Rhynia, an early fossil plant, was discovered and described by Robert Kidston and William H. Lang.
83. Name two water ferns
a) Algae
b) Kidston & Lang
c) Marsilea & Azolla
d) Amphithecium
Answer: c) Marsilea & Azolla
Explanation: Marsilea and Azolla are well-known genera of aquatic ferns.
84. In Anthoceros, the sporogenous tissue is derived from
a) Algae
b) Kidston & Lang
c) Marsilea & Azolla
d) Amphithecium
Answer: d) Amphithecium
Explanation: In Anthoceros (a hornwort), the sporogenous tissue that forms spores originates from the amphithecium.
85. Among Club moss, Reinder moss, Irish moss and Bogg moss or peat moss which one is a true moss?
a) Club moss
b) Reinder moss
c) Irish moss
d) Bogg Moss or Peat Moss
Answer: d) Bogg Moss or Peat Moss
Explanation: Bogg Moss (Sphagnum) and Peat Moss are common names for true mosses, while the others are not.
86. Trabeculae in Selaginella are modified
a) Endodermal cells
b) Leptosporangiate
c) Megaspore, endosperm and pollen-Grains
d) Polyxylic
Answer: a) Endodermal cells
Explanation: Trabeculae in Selaginella are elongated endodermal cells that form a supportive and transport system.
87. A fern in which the entire sporangium develops from a single superficial cell of the sporophyte is known as
a) Endodermal cells
b) Leptosporangiate
c) Megaspore, endosperm and pollen-Grains
d) Polyxylic
Answer: b) Leptosporangiate
Explanation: Leptosporangiate ferns are characterized by sporangia that develop from a single superficial cell.
88. Which structures are haploid in gymnosperms?
a) Endodermal cells
b) Leptosporangiate
c) Megaspore, endosperm and pollen-Grains
d) Polyxylic
Answer: c) Megaspore, endosperm and pollen-Grains
Explanation: In gymnosperms, the megaspore, endosperm (female gametophyte tissue), and pollen grains (male gametophyte) are haploid.
89. In cycas the first formed cambial ring is short lived and a fresh cambial ring is formed every year in pericycle or cortex, the wood formed by this method is
a) Endodermal cells
b) Leptosporangiate
c) Megaspore, endosperm and pollen-Grains
d) Polyxylic
Answer: d) Polyxylic
Explanation: The formation of multiple vascular cylinders or rings in Cycas is termed polyxylic.
90. Placement of Gymnosperms between Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons is one of the drawbacks in the system of classification of
a) Bentham and Hooker
b) Selaginella
c) Reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts
d) Rhizophoraceae
Answer: a) Bentham and Hooker
Explanation: The Bentham and Hooker system of classification placed gymnosperms between dicotyledons and monocotyledons, which is considered a drawback.
91. Which plant is called ‘Resurrection plant?
a) Selaginella
b) Reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts
c) Rhizophoraceae
d) Alternaria solani
Answer: a) Selaginella
Explanation: Selaginella is commonly known as the resurrection plant due to its ability to survive long periods of drought.
92. Floral characters are more widely used than vegetative characters in taxonomy of angiosperms, because
a) Selaginella
b) Reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts
c) Rhizophoraceae
d) Alternaria solani
Answer: b) Reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts
Explanation: Floral characters are generally less influenced by environmental factors and are more evolutionarily conserved, making them reliable for classification.
93. Pneumatophores are characteristics of family
a) Selaginella
b) Reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts
c) Rhizophoraceae
d) Alternaria solani
Answer: c) Rhizophoraceae
Explanation: Pneumatophores, specialized roots for gas exchange, are characteristic of mangrove plants, many of which belong to the family Rhizophoraceae.
94. Early blight of potato is caused by
a) Selaginella
b) Reproductive parts are more stable and conservative than vegetative parts
c) Rhizophoraceae
d) Alternaria solani
Answer: d) Alternaria solani
Explanation: Early blight of potato is a common fungal disease caused by the pathogen Alternaria solani.
95. Which term is used when there is abnormal increase in the size of an organ due to increase in size of cells?
a) Hypertrophy
b) 1845
c) Albert Francis Blakeslee
d) Basidiomycetes
Answer: a) Hypertrophy
Explanation: Hypertrophy refers to the enlargement of an organ or tissue due to an increase in the size of its cells.
96. In which year , the infamous Great Potato Irish Famine occurred?
a) Hypertrophy
b) 1845
c) Albert Francis Blakeslee
d) Basidiomycetes
Answer: b) 1845
Explanation: The Great Irish Potato Famine, caused by potato blight, began in 1845.
97. Heterothallism was discovered by
a) Hypertrophy
b) 1845
c) Albert Francis Blakeslee
d) Basidiomycetes
Answer: c) Albert Francis Blakeslee
Explanation: Albert Francis Blakeslee discovered heterothallism, a condition in fungi where sexual reproduction requires two compatible thalli.
98. In which group of fungi the phenomenon of clamp formation is observed?
a) Hypertrophy
b) 1845
c) Albert Francis Blakeslee
d) Basidiomycetes
Answer: d) Basidiomycetes
Explanation: Clamp connections are characteristic structures found in the dikaryotic hyphae of most Basidiomycetes.
99. Amphiphloic siphonostele is found in the rhizome of
a) Marsilea
b) Malacophily
c) Between fertilization and Parturition
d) Cryobiology
Answer: a) Marsilea
Explanation: Amphiphloic siphonostele, a type of stele with phloem on both sides of the xylem, is found in the rhizome of Marsilea.
100. Pollination by snails is called
a) Marsilea
b) Malacophily
c) Between fertilization and Parturition
d) Cryobiology
Answer: b) Malacophily
Explanation: Malacophily is the term for pollination carried out by snails or slugs.
101. Gestation period refers to duration
a) Between fertilization and Parturition
b) Cryobiology
c) Osmoregulation
d) Sporozoite
Answer: a) Between fertilization and Parturition
Explanation: Gestation period is the time from conception to birth in viviparous animals.
102. The science that deals with effects of low temperature on biological systems is known as
a) Between fertilization and Parturition
b) Cryobiology
c) Osmoregulation
d) Sporozoite
Answer: b) Cryobiology
Explanation: Cryobiology is the study of the effects of low temperatures on living organisms.
103. The chief function of contractile vacuole in Amoeba is
a) Between fertilization and Parturition
b) Cryobiology
c) Osmoregulation
d) Sporozoite
Answer: c) Osmoregulation
Explanation: The contractile vacuole in Amoeba primarily functions in osmoregulation, pumping out excess water.
104. The malarial parasite is introduced into human blood as
a) Between fertilization and Parturition
b) Cryobiology
c) Osmoregulation
d) Sporozoite
Answer: d) Sporozoite
Explanation: The malarial parasite, Plasmodium, is introduced into humans as sporozoites through mosquito bites.
105. Which of the following is not true of protostome coelomates?
a) The early cell division of the zygote exhibits radial cleavage.
b) The mouth developes at or near the blastopore.
c) The animals included in this category are molluscs, annelids and arthropods.
d) The coelom forms by a schizocoelus process in which the mesoderm is absent.
Answer: a) The early cell division of the zygote exhibits radial cleavage.
Explanation: Protostomes typically exhibit spiral cleavage, not radial cleavage.
106. Among water vascular system, Trochophore larva Tube feet and Interior skeleton with projecting spines which traits is not associated with echinoderms?
a) Water vascular system
b) Trochophore larva
c) Tube feet
d) Interior skeleton with projecting spines
Answer: b) Trochophore larva
Explanation: Trochophore larva is characteristic of many protostomes (like molluscs and annelids), not echinoderms.
107. The adult Taenia solium is usually
a) Two-four metres long and has 800-1000 proglottids
b) Miracidium-Sporocyst-Redia-Cercaria-Metacercaria
c) one testis and two ovaries
d) production of cocoons
Answer: a) Two-four metres long and has 800-1000 proglottids
Explanation: The adult pork tapeworm (Taenia solium) can be quite long with numerous segments (proglottids).
108. Give the correct sequence of various larval stages in liver fluke?
a) Miracidium-Sporocyst-Redia-Cercaria-Metacercaria
b) one testis and two ovaries
c) production of cocoons
d) Poikilotherms, absence of exoskeleton and skin used as supplementary respiratory organ
Answer: a) Miracidium-Sporocyst-Redia-Cercaria-Metacercaria
Explanation: This sequence represents the typical larval development of the liver fluke (Fasciola hepatica).
109. Male and female Ascaris respectively have
a) Miracidium-Sporocyst-Redia-Cercaria-Metacercaria
b) one testis and two ovaries
c) production of cocoons
d) Poikilotherms, absence of exoskeleton and skin used as supplementary respiratory organ
Answer: b) one testis and two ovaries
Explanation: Male Ascaris have one testis, while female Ascaris have two ovaries.
110. Clitellum of earthworm is primarily concerned with
a) Miracidium-Sporocyst-Redia-Cercaria-Metacercaria
b) one testis and two ovaries
c) production of cocoons
d) Poikilotherms, absence of exoskeleton and skin used as supplementary respiratory organ
Answer: c) production of cocoons
Explanation: The clitellum in earthworms secretes the cocoon for egg deposition and development.
111. An amphibian possesses characteristics
a) Poikilotherms, absence of exoskeleton and skin used as supplementary respiratory organ
b) Maggot
c) Paurometabola
d) Sea cucumbers
Answer: a) Poikilotherms, absence of exoskeleton and skin used as supplementary respiratory organ
Explanation: Amphibians are cold-blooded (poikilotherms), lack an exoskeleton, and can breathe through their skin.
112. Mature larva of housefly is known as
a) Poikilotherms, absence of exoskeleton and skin used as supplementary respiratory organ
b) Maggot
c) Paurometabola
d) Sea cucumbers
Answer: b) Maggot
Explanation: The larval stage of a housefly is commonly referred to as a maggot.
113. Which type of metamorphosis occurs in cockroach?
a) Poikilotherms, absence of exoskeleton and skin used as supplementary respiratory organ
b) Maggot
c) Paurometabola
d) Sea cucumbers
Answer: c) Paurometabola
Explanation: Cockroaches undergo incomplete or gradual metamorphosis, known as paurometabola.
114. The members of class Holothuroidea of Echinoderms are commonly called
a) Poikilotherms, absence of exoskeleton and skin used as supplementary respiratory organ
b) Maggot
c) Paurometabola
d) Sea cucumbers
Answer: d) Sea cucumbers
Explanation: Holothuroidea is the class of echinoderms that includes sea cucumbers.
115. Which is the excretory product of frog?
a) Urea
b) Sweat glands
c) Enterocoelom
d) Round worm
Answer: a) Urea
Explanation: Frogs excrete nitrogenous waste primarily in the form of urea.
116. Archaeopteryx is considered to be a connecting link between
a) Reptiles and birds
b) Sweat glands
c) Enterocoelom
d) Round worm
Answer: a) Reptiles and birds
Explanation: Archaeopteryx exhibits characteristics of both reptiles (e.g., teeth, bony tail) and birds (e.g., feathers), making it a significant transitional fossil.
117. Mammary glands are modification of
a) Urea
b) Sweat glands
c) Enterocoelom
d) Round worm
Answer: b) Sweat glands
Explanation: Mammary glands, which produce milk, are modified sweat glands.
118. Which type of Coelom is present in Star fish?
a) Urea
b) Sweat glands
c) Enterocoelom
d) Round worm
Answer: c) Enterocoelom
Explanation: Starfish (Echinoderms) possess an enterocoelom, where the coelom forms from outpocketings of the embryonic gut.
119. Filariasis is caused by a type of
a) Urea
b) Sweat glands
c) Enterocoelom
d) Round worm
Answer: d) Round worm
Explanation: Filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by infection with roundworms of the Filarioidea type.
120. Gemmules in sponges are helpful in
a) Urea
b) Sweat glands
c) Enterocoelom
d) Asexual reproduction
Answer: d) Asexual reproduction
Explanation: Gemmules are internal buds produced by sponges that are capable of developing into new sponges, aiding in asexual reproduction and survival in harsh conditions.
121. Palpigers are the structures present on insect’s
a) Labium
b) interferons
c) Synovial fluid
d) Acetylcholine
Answer: a) Labium
Explanation: Palpigers are small appendages found on the labium (lower lip) of insects.
122. Messenger molecules, released by virus-infected cells, that bind to the surfaces of healthy cells and stimulate them to synthesize proteins prevent viral reproduction are called
a) Labium
b) interferons
c) Synovial fluid
d) Acetylcholine
Answer: b) interferons
Explanation: Interferons are signaling proteins released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens, such as viruses.
123. The fluid responsible for reducing friction of two bones in ball and socket joint is called
a) Labium
b) interferons
c) Synovial fluid
d) Acetylcholine
Answer: c) Synovial fluid
Explanation: Synovial fluid lubricates joints, reducing friction between bones during movement.
124. Which is the neurotransmitter between a motor neuron and a muscle cell?
a) Labium
b) interferons
c) Synovial fluid
d) Acetylcholine
Answer: d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter responsible for transmitting signals from motor neurons to muscle cells.
125. The chemical name of Vitamin E is
a) Tocopherol
b) acidic medium
c) duodenum
d) testis and testosterone produce
Answer: a) Tocopherol
Explanation: Tocopherol is a class of organic chemical compounds, many of which have Vitamin E activity.
126. Pepsin acts in
a) Tocopherol
b) acidic medium
c) duodenum
d) testis and testosterone produce
Answer: b) acidic medium
Explanation: Pepsin is an enzyme that digests proteins in the stomach, which has a highly acidic environment.
127. Brunner’s glands are found in
a) Tocopherol
b) acidic medium
c) duodenum
d) testis and testosterone produce
Answer: c) duodenum
Explanation: Brunner’s glands are located in the submucosa of the duodenum and secrete an alkaline mucus.
128. Leydig cells are found in mammalian
a) Tocopherol
b) acidic medium
c) duodenum
d) testis and testosterone produce
Answer: d) testis and testosterone produce
Explanation: Leydig cells are located in the testes and are responsible for producing testosterone.
129. The presence of DNA in mitochondria and chloroplast supports the hypothesis that
a) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free living organisms.
b) phosphodiester bond
c) DNA but no histones
d) Karry Mullis
Answer: a) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free living organisms.
Explanation: The endosymbiotic theory suggests that mitochondria and chloroplasts originated from free-living prokaryotes that were engulfed by ancestral eukaryotic cells.
130. The bond present between two successive nucleotides of long polynucleotide molecule is
a) Mitochondria and chloroplast both originated as independent free living organisms.
b) phosphodiester bond
c) DNA but no histones
d) Karry Mullis
Answer: b) phosphodiester bond
Explanation: Nucleotides in a polynucleotide chain (like DNA or RNA) are linked by phosphodiester bonds.
131. Prokaryotic genetic system contains
a) DNA but no histones
b) Karry Mullis
c) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
d) geographic barrier
Answer: a) DNA but no histones
Explanation: Prokaryotic genetic material is typically a circular DNA molecule not associated with histone proteins.
132. Polymerase chain reaction was discovered by
a) DNA but no histones
b) Karry Mullis
c) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
d) geographic barrier
Answer: b) Karry Mullis
Explanation: Kary Mullis was awarded the Nobel Prize for his invention of the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technique.
133. Which is a hybridization based marker system?
a) DNA but no histones
b) Karry Mullis
c) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
d) geographic barrier
Answer: c) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
Explanation: RFLP is a molecular marker technique that relies on hybridization of DNA probes to detect variations in DNA fragment lengths.
134. Reproductive isolation in sympatric speciation develops without a
a) DNA but no histones
b) Karry Mullis
c) Restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
d) geographic barrier
Answer: d) geographic barrier
Explanation: Sympatric speciation occurs when new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the same geographic region.
135. The scientist, who decoded the language of bees, explained their dances for communication and was awarded the Nobel Prize.
a) Karl Von Frisch
b) technique for producing monoclonal antibodies by fusing antibody producing cells with myelomas.
c) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
d) frame shift mutation
Answer: a) Karl Von Frisch
Explanation: Karl von Frisch was an Austrian ethologist who studied bee communication and won a Nobel Prize for his work.
136. Hybridoma technology refers to
a) Karl Von Frisch
b) technique for producing monoclonal antibodies by fusing antibody producing cells with myelomas.
c) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
d) frame shift mutation
Answer: b) technique for producing monoclonal antibodies by fusing antibody producing cells with myelomas.
Explanation: Hybridoma technology is used to produce large quantities of specific antibodies by fusing antibody-producing B cells with myeloma cells.
137. Proteins that are to be used outside the cell are synthesized
a) Karl Von Frisch
b) technique for producing monoclonal antibodies by fusing antibody producing cells with myelomas.
c) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
d) frame shift mutation
Answer: c) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
Explanation: Proteins destined for secretion or insertion into membranes are synthesized on ribosomes attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
138. A mutation in which all the amino acids of a polypeptide chain located beyond the site of mutation are substituted, is called
a) Karl Von Frisch
b) technique for producing monoclonal antibodies by fusing antibody producing cells with myelomas.
c) on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
d) frame shift mutation
Answer: d) frame shift mutation
Explanation: A frameshift mutation is a genetic mutation caused by indels (insertions or deletions) of a number of nucleotides not divisible by three, leading to a shift in the reading frame.
139. Joseph is colour blind. What is the chance his son will inherit colour blindness from him?
a) 0%
b) A or B
c) 4g of Sulphur
d) 3.3 * 10^11
Answer: a) 0%
Explanation: Color blindness is an X-linked recessive trait, meaning a father cannot pass it directly to his son.
140. A woman with blood group O marries a man with blood group AB. The blood group of their son could be
a) 0%
b) A or B
c) 4g of Sulphur
d) 3.3 * 10^11
Answer: b) A or B
Explanation: A mother with blood group O (genotype ii) and a father with blood group AB (genotype I^A I^B) can only have children with blood group A (genotype I^A i) or B (genotype I^B i).
141. 2 g of oxygen contain number of atoms equal that contained by
a) 4g of Sulphur
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (21+1)
d) d-block
Answer: a) 4g of Sulphur
Explanation: This question relates to the concept of moles and Avogadro’s number, implying a comparison of the number of atoms in different masses of elements.
142. Number of molecules present in 1 ml of water is
a) 4g of Sulphur
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (21+1)
d) d-block
Answer: b) 3.3 * 10^11
Explanation: This refers to the calculation of the number of molecules using density and Avogadro’s number.
143. For a particular value of azimuthal quantum number (1) the total number of magnetic quantum number(m) values are
a) 4g of Sulphur
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (2l+1)
d) d-block
Answer: c) (2l+1)
Explanation: The magnetic quantum number (m) can take integer values from -l to +l, including 0, resulting in (2l+1) possible values.
144. The radius of first orbit of hydrogen is 0.53 A. The radius of second orbit would be
a) 4g of Sulphur
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (21+1)
d) 2.12 * A deg
Answer: d) 2.12 * A deg
Explanation: The radius of an orbit in a hydrogen-like atom is proportional to n^2, where n is the principal quantum number.
145. Considering the elements B. Al, Mg and K, the correct order or their metallic character is
a) 4g of Sulphur
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) K > Mg > Ab > B
d) d-block
Answer: c) K > Mg > Ab > B
Explanation: Metallic character increases down a group and decreases across a period.
146. The recently discovered elements Meitnerium (z = 109) belongs to
a) 4g of Sulphur
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (2l+1)
d) d-block
Answer: d) d-block
Explanation: Elements with atomic numbers from 21 to 30, 39 to 48, 57 to 80, and 89 to 112 are generally classified as d-block elements.
147. Among SbH, NH{x} ASH, and PH{2} which one has highest boiling point?
a) SbH
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (2l+1)
d) d-block
Answer: a) SbH
Explanation: Boiling points of hydrides of Group 15 elements generally increase down the group due to increasing Van der Waals forces.
*148. Among CH{3}Cl CH*{2}Cl CHCl,, CCl, molecule with highest dipole moment is
a) CH2Cl
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (2l+1)
d) d-block
Answer: a) CH2Cl
Explanation: The dipole moment depends on the molecular geometry and the electronegativity difference between atoms.
149. The pressure and temperature of 4d * m ^ 3 of CO{2}i are doubled, the volume of CO*{2} gas would be
a) 4g of Sulphur
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (2l+1)
d) 4d * m ^ 3
Answer: d) 4d * m ^ 3
Explanation: According to the ideal gas law (PV=nRT), if pressure and temperature are both doubled, the volume remains constant.
150. Hydrogen gas diffuses six times faster than gas A, the molar mass of gas A is
a) 4g of Sulphur
b) 3.3 * 10^11
c) (2l+1)
d) 72
Answer: d) 72
Explanation: Graham’s Law of Diffusion states that the rate of diffusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass.
151. For the process to occur under adiabatic conditions, the correct condition is
a) q = 0
b) Isoenthalpic
c) 12
d) HPO 2
Answer: a) q = 0
Explanation: An adiabatic process is one where no heat (q) is exchanged with the surroundings.
152. Joule-Thomson’s expansion is
a) q = 0
b) Isoenthalpic
c) 12
d) HPO 2
Answer: b) Isoenthalpic
Explanation: Joule-Thomson expansion is a process in which the enthalpy of a gas remains constant (isoenthalpic).
153. The pH value of 0.01M NaOH is
a) q = 0
b) Isoenthalpic
c) 12
d) HPO 2
Answer: c) 12
Explanation: NaOH is a strong base; 0.01M NaOH means [OH-] = 0.01 M, so pOH = 2, and pH = 14 – 2 = 12.
154. The conjugate base of H₂PO₄ is
a) q = 0
b) Isoenthalpic
c) 12
d) HPO₄²⁻
Answer: d) HPO₄²⁻
Explanation: A conjugate base is formed when an acid loses a proton (H+).
155. The reagent commonly to determine hardness of water is
a) q = 0
b) Isoenthalpic
c) Disodium EDTA
d) HPO₄²⁻
Answer: c) Disodium EDTA
Explanation: EDTA (Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) is a common chelating agent used to determine water hardness.
156. Among LiCl, NaCl, KCl, and RbCl which alkali metal chloride is expected to have highest melting point?
a) LiCl
b) NaCl
c) KCl
d) RbCl
Answer: b) NaCl
Explanation: Melting points of alkali metal halides generally decrease down the group due to increasing ionic size and decreasing lattice energy, with NaCl often having the highest among common ones.
157. The percentage of lead in lead pencil is
a) zero
b) CO + H₂O
c) 4-Hydroxy butan-2-one
d) 9,9
Answer: a) zero
Explanation: Lead pencils actually contain graphite (a form of carbon) and clay, not lead.
158. Water gas is mixture of
a) zero
b) CO + H₂
c) 4-Hydroxy butan-2-one
d) 9,9
Answer: b) CO + H₂
Explanation: Water gas is a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO) and hydrogen (H₂)
159. The IUPAC name of the compound CH₃ – CO – CH₂ – CH₂OH is
a) zero
b) CO + H₂O
c) 4-Hydroxy butan-2-one
d) 9,9
Answer: c) 4-Hydroxy butan-2-one
Explanation: This is derived by numbering the carbon chain to give the hydroxyl group the lowest possible number, and identifying the ketone functional group.
160. How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are there in the molecule of tetracyano ethene (NC)₂C=C(CN)₂?
a) zero
b) CO + H₂O
c) 4-Hydroxy butan-2-one
d) 9,9
Answer: d) 9,9
Explanation: This requires counting single bonds as sigma and double/triple bond components as pi bonds within the structure.
161. Among C2H2l and C2H2OH.C2H2and C2H2CH₂, C₂H₃l and CHBr,C₂H₂l and C₂H₂Br which pair will not form an ideal solution?
a) C₂H₂l and C,H,OH
b) C₂H₂ and C₂H₂CH₂
c) C₂H₃l and CHBr₃
d) C₂H₂l and C₂H₂Br
Answer: a) C₂H₂I and C₂H₅OH
Explanation: Solutions with significant differences in molecular structures and intermolecular forces tend not to form ideal solutions.
162. The half life of a radioactive element is 5 years. The fraction of the radioactive substance after 20 year is
a) 1/4
b) 1/8
c) 1/16
d) 1/32
Answer: c) 1/16
Explanation: After 20 years (4 half-lives), the substance remaining will be (1/2)^4 = 1/16.
163. The time taken for 90% of a first order reaction to complete is approximately
a) 1.1 times that of half life.
b) 2.2 times that of half life.
c) 3.3 times that of half life.
d) 4.4 times that of half life.
Answer: c) 3.3 times that of half life.
Explanation: For a first-order reaction, t(90%) ≈ 3.32 * t(1/2).
164. Alums purify muddy water by
a) Sedimentation
b) Filtration
c) Coagulation
d) Distillation
Answer: c) Coagulation
Explanation: Alums act as coagulants, causing suspended impurities in muddy water to clump together and settle.
165. Among ClO₂(OH), ClO(OH), SO₂(OH)₂, SO(OH)₂ which one is the strongest acid?
a) ClO₂(OH)
b) ClO(OH)
c) SO₂(OH)₂
d) SO(OH)₂
Answer: a) ClO₂(OH)
Explanation: As the number of oxygen atoms bonded to the central atom increases, the acidity of oxyacids generally increases.
166. Among Si, Ge, Sn and Pb the inert pair effect is predominant in
a) Si
b) Ge
c) Sn
d) Pb
Answer: d) Pb
Explanation: The inert pair effect, where the outermost s-electrons remain unshared, is most pronounced in heavier p-block elements like lead.
167. Among Zn, Ti, Sc and Mn which ion has highest magnetic moment?
a) Zn²⁺
b) Ti³⁺
c) Sc³⁺
d) Mn²⁺
Answer: d) Mn²⁺
Explanation: Mn²⁺ has the most unpaired electrons (5), leading to the highest magnetic moment among the given ions.
168. The equivalent weight of KMnO₄ in alkaline medium is equal to
a) Mol. Wt./1
b) Mol. Wt./3
c) Mol. Wt./5
d) Mol. Wt./7
Answer: b) Mol. Wt./3
Explanation: In alkaline medium, KMnO₄ is reduced to MnO₂, involving a change in oxidation state from +7 to +4, thus 3 electrons.
169. Liquid crystal is a state which can be termed as
a) Solid
b) Liquid
c) Mesomorphic
d) Gaseous
Answer: c) Mesomorphic
Explanation: Liquid crystals exist in a mesomorphic state, an intermediate phase between solid and liquid, possessing properties of both.
170. Liquid crystal display in digital watches and calculators are composed of several
a) 7-segment cell
b) LCD pixels
c) LED segments
d) Plasma cells
Answer: a) 7-segment cell
Explanation: Digital watches and calculators often use 7-segment displays to show numerical digits.
171. The number of atoms per unit cell of body centered cubic (BCC) are
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b) 2
Explanation: A BCC unit cell has 1 atom at the center and 1/8th of an atom at each of the 8 corners, totaling 1 + (1/8 * 8) = 2 atoms.
172. Among HCl, O₂, N₂, and H₂ which molecule is active in IR spectroscopy?
a) HCl
b) O₂
c) N₂
d) H₂
Answer: a) HCl
Explanation: Molecules with a permanent dipole moment, like HCl, are IR active. Diatomic molecules of the same element (O₂, N₂, H₂) are not.
173. Pure rotational spectra can be observed if it is present in
a) Gaseous state
b) Liquid state
c) Solid state
d) Aqueous solution
Answer: a) Gaseous state
Explanation: Pure rotational spectra require molecules to be able to rotate freely, which is primarily possible in the gaseous state.
174. An Einstein is the quantity of energy absorbed
a) per mole of a substance during photochemical reaction
b) per photon during photochemical reaction
c) per molecule during photochemical reaction
d) per atom during photochemical reaction
Answer: a) per mole of a substance during photochemical reaction
Explanation: An Einstein is defined as the energy in one mole of photons.
175. According to Curie-Weiss Law
a) T-T_c
b) T+T_c
c) T/T_c
d) T*T_c
Answer: a) T-T_c
Explanation: The Curie-Weiss Law describes the magnetic susceptibility of ferromagnetic materials above their Curie temperature (T_c), showing an inverse relationship with (T-T_c).
176. Among C₂H₅I and C₂H₅OH, C₆H₆ and C₆H₅CH₃, CHCl₃ and C₆H₆, C₂H₅I and C₂H₅Br which pair will not form an ideal solution?
a) C₂H₅I and C₂H₅OH
b) C₆H₆ and C₆H₅CH₃
c) CHCl₃ and C₆H₆
d) C₂H₅I and C₂H₅Br
Answer: c) CHCl₃ and C₆H₆
Explanation: Chloroform and benzene form a non-ideal solution due to strong intermolecular interactions (hydrogen bonding between CHCl₃ and pi electrons of C₆H₆).
177. Iron is rendered passive by treatment with concentrated
a) HNO₃
b) H₂SO₄
c) HCl
d) H₃PO₄
Answer: a) HNO₃
Explanation: Concentrated nitric acid passivates iron by forming a thin, protective oxide layer on its surface.
178. Total number of isomers of C₂H₆O will be
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b) 2
Explanation: The two isomers of C₂H₆O are ethanol (CH₃CH₂OH) and dimethyl ether (CH₃OCH₃).
179. When glycerol is treated with small amount of HI, then the final product is
a) Allyl Iodide
b) Isopropyl Iodide
c) n-Propyl Iodide
d) Glycerol Triiodide
Answer: a) Allyl Iodide
Explanation: When glycerol reacts with a small amount of HI, it undergoes dehydration followed by iodination to form allyl iodide.
180. How many kinds of protons are there in CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b) 2
Explanation: In n-butane (CH₃-CH₂-CH₂-CH₃), there are two distinct types of protons: those on the terminal methyl groups and those on the internal methylene groups.
181. Mammary glands are modification of
a) Sweat glands
b) Enterocoelom
c) Round worm
d) Asexual reproduction
Answer: a) Sweat glands
Explanation: Mammary glands are modified apocrine sweat glands specialized for milk production.
182. Which type of Coelom is present in Star fish?
a) Sweat glands
b) Enterocoelom
c) Round worm
d) Asexual reproduction
Answer: b) Enterocoelom
Explanation: Starfish (Echinoderms) possess an enterocoelom, which forms from outpocketings of the embryonic gut.
183. Filariasis is caused by a type of
a) Sweat glands
b) Enterocoelom
c) Round worm
d) Asexual reproduction
Answer: c) Round worm
Explanation: Filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by infection with roundworms of the Filarioidea type.
184. Gemmules in sponges are helpful in
a) Sweat glands
b) Enterocoelom
c) Round worm
d) Asexual reproduction
Answer: d) Asexual reproduction
Explanation: Gemmules are internal buds produced by sponges that can survive harsh conditions and develop into new sponges, aiding in asexual reproduction.
185. Palpigers are the structures present on insect’s
a) Labium
b) interferons
c) Synovial fluid
d) Acetylcholine
Answer: a) Labium
Explanation: Palpigers are sensory structures found on the labium (lower lip) of insects.
186. Messenger molecules, released by virus-infected cells, that bind to the surfaces of healthy cells and stimulate them to synthesize proteins prevent viral reproduction are called
a) Labium
b) interferons
c) Synovial fluid
d) Acetylcholine
Answer: b) interferons
Explanation: Interferons are proteins released by host cells in response to the presence of pathogens like viruses, inhibiting viral replication.
187. The fluid responsible for reducing friction of two bones in ball and socket joint is called
a) Labium
b) interferons
c) Synovial fluid
d) Acetylcholine
Answer: c) Synovial fluid
Explanation: Synovial fluid is a viscous fluid found in the cavities of synovial joints, reducing friction between articular cartilages.
188. Which is the neurotransmitter between a motor neuron and a muscle cell?
a) Labium
b) interferons
c) Synovial fluid
d) Acetylcholine
Answer: d) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Acetylcholine is the primary neurotransmitter at the neuromuscular junction, mediating muscle contraction.
189. The chemical name of Vitamin E is
a) Tocopherol
b) acidic medium
c) duodenum
d) testis and testosterone produce
Answer: a) Tocopherol
Explanation: The chemical name for Vitamin E is tocopherol, which refers to a group of fat-soluble compounds with antioxidant properties.
190. Pepsin acts in
a) Tocopherol
b) acidic medium
c) duodenum
d) testis and testosterone produce
Answer: b) acidic medium
Explanation: Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme that functions optimally in the highly acidic environment of the stomach.