TGT Arts 2002 -

TGT Arts 2002

1. Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the disqualification of elected members on the ground of defection?

(A) 8th

(B) 9th

(D) 11th

Answer: (C) 10th

Explanation: The 10th Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, lays down the provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection.

2. What is the correct order of succession of (earlier to later) among the following Presidents of India?

Dr. Zakir Hussain
Dr. S Radhakrishnan
Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
V.V. Giri
(A) 2-3-4-1
(B) 3-2-4-1
(C) 4-1-2-3
(D) 2-1-4-3
Answer: (D) 2-1-4-3
Explanation: The correct chronological order is Dr. S Radhakrishnan (1962-67), Dr. Zakir Hussain (1967-69), V.V. Giri (1969-74), and Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (1974-77).

3. In an election, electioneering has to be stopped in a constituency:

(A) 24 hours before the poll commences

(B) 24 hours before the closing hour of polling

(D) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling

Answer: (D) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling

Explanation: According to Section 126 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, election campaigning must end 48 hours before the conclusion of polling.

4. If the Speaker of Lok Sabha intends to vacate his office before the expiry of his term, he sends his resignation to the:

(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(B) Leader of the House (Lok Sabha)

(D) President of India

Answer: (C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha submits their resignation to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

5. The Parliament enjoys the exclusive right to legislate on the subjects contained in:

(A) The Union List

(B) The Concurrent List

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Answer: (A) The Union List

Explanation: The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make laws on subjects enumerated in the Union List.

6. A Bill is certified as Money Bill in Lok Sabha by:

(A) The President

(B) The Finance Minister

(D) The Speaker

Answer: (D) The Speaker

Explanation: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the final authority to certify whether a bill is a Money Bill or not.

7. The Bhoodan Movement was launched by:

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Jai Prakash Narain

(D) Ram Manohar Lohia

Answer: (C) Vinoba Bhave

Explanation: The Bhoodan (Land Gift) Movement was a voluntary land reform movement in India, started by Acharya Vinoba Bhave in 1951.

8. The chemical name of rat poison is:

(A) Zinc oxide

(B) Potassium cyanide

(D) Zinc phosphide

Answer: (B) Potassium cyanide

Explanation: While zinc phosphide is a common rodenticide, potassium cyanide is also a highly potent poison used for this purpose.

9. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(A) Haematite—-Copper

(B) Bauxite—-Aluminium

(D) Pitchblende—-Uranium

Answer: (A) Haematite—-Copper

Explanation: Haematite is a primary ore of iron, not copper.

10. Human beings have two ears because two ears help:

(A) To judge the direction of sound

(B) To hear even a feeble sound

(D) To distinguish between two kinds of sounds

Answer: (A) To judge the direction of sound

Explanation: Having two ears (binaural hearing) allows the brain to determine the direction and origin of sounds.

11. The vitamin which cannot be had from any vegetables is:

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin C

(D) Vitamin E

Answer: (C) Vitamin D

Explanation: Vitamin D is primarily synthesized by the skin upon exposure to sunlight and is not naturally present in vegetables.

12. Which of the following is not a gland?

(A) Thyroid

(B) Stomach

(D) Pancreas

Answer: (B) Stomach

Explanation: The stomach is an organ of the digestive system; while it has glandular cells, it is not primarily classified as a gland like the others.

13. A person having blood group B could safely donate blood to persons with groups:

(A) A and O

(B) B and O

(D) B and AB

Answer: (D) B and AB

Explanation: A person with blood group B can donate to individuals with blood group B and the universal recipient, group AB.

14. Plants get water through the roots because of:

(A) Elasticity

(B) Capillarity

(D) Photosynthesis

Answer: (B) Capillarity

Explanation: Capillary action is the process that allows water to move up through the narrow tubes of a plant’s xylem from the roots.

15. The central control of respiratory activity in human body is exercised by:

(A) Cerebrum

(B) Cerebellum

(D) Hypothalamus

Answer: (C) Medulla oblongata

Explanation: The respiratory control center, which regulates the rate and depth of breathing, is located in the medulla oblongata of the brainstem.

16. The method used to obtain alcohol from molasses is called:

(A) Distillation

(B) Hydrolysis

(D) Oxidation

Answer: (C) Fermentation

Explanation: Fermentation is the metabolic process in which yeast converts sugar in molasses into ethanol (alcohol).

17. Bacterial diseases are found in:

(A) Plants

(B) Animals

(D) All of these

Answer: (D) All of these

Explanation: Bacteria are capable of causing diseases in a wide range of organisms, including plants, animals, and humans.

18. Which of the following is used for refrigeration?

(A) Sulphur Dioxide

(B) Chlorine

(D) Phosphine

Answer: (C) Freon

Explanation: Freon is a trade name for a group of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) widely used as refrigerants.

19. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope can be decreased by:

(A) Decreasing the focal length of the eyepiece

(B) Increasing the focal length of the eyepiece

(D) None of these

Answer: (B) Increasing the focal length of the eyepiece

Explanation: The magnifying power is the ratio of the objective’s focal length to the eyepiece’s focal length (fo/fe), so increasing the eyepiece’s focal length decreases magnification.

20. Which of the following States in India has the highest net sown area?

(A) Punjab

(B) Orissa

(D) Mizoran

Answer: (A) Punjab

Explanation: Punjab has one of the highest percentages of its geographical area under cultivation, making its net sown area very high.

21. The most commonly consumed staple cereal in India is:

(A) Rice

(B) Wheat

(D) Maize

Answer: (A) Rice

Explanation: Rice is the staple food for over half of the Indian population, especially in the southern and eastern parts of the country.

22. Palk Strait separates:

(A) India and Pakistan

(B) India and Burma

(D) India and Afghanistan

Answer: (C) India and Sri Lanka

Explanation: The Palk Strait is a strait between the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Jaffna District of Sri Lanka.

23. With which game is Geet Sethi associated?

(A) Lawn Tennis

(B) Kabbadi

(D) Squash

Answer: (C) Billiards

Explanation: Geet Sethi is a renowned professional player of English billiards from India.

24. The most popular game in the United States of America is:

(A) Baseball

(B) Cricket

(D) Lawn Tennis

Answer: (A) Baseball

Explanation: Baseball is widely consideredthe national sport of the United States.

25. The book “A Tale of Two Cities” was written by:

(A) John Lennon

(B) Mark Twain

(D) Charles Dickens

Answer: (D) Charles Dickens

Explanation: “A Tale of Two Cities” is a historical novel by the celebrated British author Charles Dickens, published in 1859.

26. Life Divine is a book written by:

(A) Gandhi

(B) Tagore

(D) Sri Aurobindo

Answer: (D) Sri Aurobindo

Explanation: “The Life Divine” is the principal philosophical work of the Indian philosopher and yogi Sri Aurobindo.

27. Scurvy is a disease of:

(A) Hair

(B) Skin

(D) Eyes

Answer: (B) Skin

Explanation: Scurvy, caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, manifests with symptoms like skin rashes, bleeding gums, and poor wound healing.

28. The Radcliffe Line is the international border between:

(A) India and Pakistan

(B) India and China

(D) India and Nepal

Answer: (A) India and Pakistan

Explanation: The Radcliffe Line was the boundary demarcation line between the Indian and Pakistani portions of the Punjab and Bengal provinces of British India.

29. Former Soviet President, Mr. Mikhail Gorbachev had become popular for his policy of:

(A) Market Economy

(B) Perestroika

(D) Dictatorship of Proletariat

Answer: (B) Perestroika

Explanation: Perestroika (restructuring) was a political movement for reformation within the Communist Party of the Soviet Union during the 1980s, widely associated with Mikhail Gorbachev.

30. ‘Diego Garcia’ is an island in the—-Ocean.

(A) Pacific Ocean

(B) Indian Ocean

(D) Arctic Ocean

Answer: (B) Indian Ocean

Explanation: Diego Garcia is an atoll located in the central Indian Ocean, part of the British Indian Ocean Territory.

31. The population of which of the following is maximum on the earth?

(A) Fishes

(B) Beetles

(D) Birds

Answer: (B) Beetles

Explanation: Beetles (order Coleoptera) represent the largest order of insects, which are the most diverse group of animals on Earth.

32. ‘National Integration’ Day is observed on:

(A) January 30

(B) May 21

(D) None of these

Answer: (D) None of these

Explanation: National Integration Day in India is observed on November 19th, which is not listed as an option.

33. When the Vice-President officiates as President of India, he draws the salary of:

(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(B) President

(D) Both A and B

Answer: (B) President

Explanation: When the Vice-President acts as President, he is entitled to the salary, allowances, and privileges of the President of India.

34. Prime Meridian passes through:

(A) Greenwich

(B) Ujjain

(D) Tokyo

Answer: (A) Greenwich

Explanation: The Prime Meridian, the line of 0° longitude, passes through the Royal Observatory in Greenwich, London.

35. The sale proceeds of the Government Bonds come under the budget head of:

(A) Revenue Receipts

(B) Current Expenditure

(D) Capital Receipts

Answer: (D) Capital Receipts

Explanation: Money raised from the sale of government bonds is a form of borrowing and is classified as a capital receipt.

36. The Indian Rice Research Institute is located in:

(A) Kolkata

(B) Burdwan

(D) Cuttack

Answer: (D) Cuttack

Explanation: The National Rice Research Institute (NRRI) is located in Cuttack, Odisha.

37. Gupta Dynasty was famous for:

(A) Art and architecture

(B) Imperialism

(D) Patronage of literary work

Answer: (A) Art and architecture

Explanation: The Gupta period is often referred to as the “Golden Age of India” due to its remarkable achievements in art, architecture, science, and literature.

38. The first woman judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was:

(A) Rani Jethmalani

(B) Anna George Malhotra

(D) Leila Seth

Answer: (C) M. Fathima Beevi

Explanation: Justice M. Fathima Beevi was the first female judge to be appointed to the Supreme Court of India in 1989.

39. Which Indian scientist has had the distinction of receiving not only the Nobel Prize, but also Bharat Ratna?

(A) Dr. Homi Bhabha

(B) Dr. J.C. Bose

(D) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai

Answer: (C) Dr. C. V. Raman

Explanation: Sir C. V. Raman won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930 and was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honor, in 1954.

40. Who is popularly known as ‘Missile Man of India’?

(A) Dr. C.V. Raman

(B) Dr. Hargobind Khurana

(D) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Answer: (D) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Explanation: Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam earned the title “Missile Man of India” for his pivotal role in the development of India’s ballistic missile and space rocket technology.

41. The football team which won the Durand Cup title in December 2000 was:

(A) Mohun Bagan

(B) East Bengal

(D) Salgaonkar

Answer: (A) Mohun Bagan

Explanation: Mohun Bagan won the Durand Cup in the year 2000.

42. Which of the following Indian cricketers was recently suspended from playing a single match for showing dissent and intimidating the umpire?

(A) Yuvraj Singh

(B) Sourav Ganguly

(D) Sachin Tendulkar

Answer: (B) Sourav Ganguly

Explanation: This question refers to an incident in 2001 where Sourav Ganguly received a one-match suspension.

43. The abbreviation TRAI stands for:

(A) Taxation Research and Analysis Institute

(B) Tourist Resorts’ Agents of India

(D) Trade-Related Accounts and Indices

Answer: (C) Telecom Regulatory Authority of India

Explanation: TRAI is the statutory body that regulates the telecommunications sector in India.

44. The first Chief Minister of the newly created Chhattisgarh State is:

(A) V.C. Shukla

(B) S.C. Shukla

(D) Ajit Jogi

Answer: (D) Ajit Jogi

Explanation: Ajit Jogi served as the first Chief Minister of Chhattisgarh from 2000 to 2003.

45. George W. Bush Jr. was the Governor of ——-(American State) before he was elected to the US Presidentship.

(A) Florida

(B) New York

(D) Ohio

Answer: (C) Texas

Explanation: George W. Bush served as the Governor of Texas from 1995 to 2000 before being elected President of the United States.

46. Priyanka Chopra had recently been crowned:

(A) Miss International

(B) Miss World

(D) Miss Asia Pacific

Answer: (B) Miss World

Explanation: Priyanka Chopra won the Miss World pageant in the year 2

00.

47. India’s first Naval Museum is commissioned at which of the following sea ports?

(A) Chennai

(B) Mumbai

(D) Kochi

Answer: (C) Vishakhapatnam

Explanation: The INS Kursura submarine museum, one of the first of its kind, was established in Visakhapatnam.

48. In Jabbar Patel’s feature film on the life of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, the role of Dr. Ambedkar was enacted by:

(A) Kamal Hassan

(B) Mammooty

(D) Govinda

Answer: (B) Mammooty

Explanation: South Indian actor Mammootty portrayed Dr. B. R. Ambedkar in the 2000 film “Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar”.

49. Which of the following political parties was first derecognised and later on again recognised as a National Party by the Election Commission of India?

(A) Communist Party of India

(B) Communist Party of India-Marxist

(D) Republican Party of India

Answer: (B) Communist Party of India-Marxist

Explanation: This question refers to past events regarding the recognition status of political parties by the Election Commission.

50. The ‘Global 500’ awards are given for outstanding achievement in which of the following fields?

(A) Literature

(B) Medicine

(D) Promotion of International Peace

Answer: (C) Environmental Protection

Explanation: The Global 500 Roll of Honour was an award given by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) for achievements in environmental protection.

51. The Harappans were:

(A) Rural

(B) Urban

(D) Tribal

Answer: (B) Urban

Explanation: The Harappan civilization is renowned for its well-planned cities and sophisticated urban culture.

52. The crop which was not known to Vedic people is:

(A) Barley

(B) Wheat

(D) Tobacco

Answer: (D) Tobacco

Explanation: Tobacco was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 17th century, long after the Vedic period.

53. Which of the following combinations of Authors and Books is incorrectly matched?

(A) Vishakhadatta : Mudrarakshasa

(B) Kautilya : Arthashastra

(D) Nagarjuna : Dhruvaswamini

Answer: (D) Nagarjuna : Dhruvaswamini

Explanation: Dhruvaswamini is a play written by Jaishankar Prasad; Nagarjuna was a Buddhist philosopher.

54. The Rashtrakuta Kingdom was founded by:

(A) Dandi Durga (Dantidurga)

(B) Amoghavarsha

(D) Indra III

Answer: (A) Dandi Durga (Dantidurga)

Explanation: Dantidurga is credited with establishing the Rashtrakuta Empire in the 8th century CE.

55. Who defeated whom in the Second Battle of Tarain (AD 1192)?

(A) Prithviraj defeated Mohammad Ghauri

(B) Mahmud Ghazni defeated Prithviraj

(D) Mohammad Ghauri defeated Prithviraj

Answer: (D) Mohammad Ghauri defeated Prithviraj

Explanation: In the Second Battle of Tarain, Mohammad Ghauri’s forces decisively defeated the army of Prithviraj Chauhan.

56. Who issued a token currency in copper coins between AD 1329 and 1330?

(A) Alauddin Khilji

(B) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq

(D) Firoj Tughlaq

Answer: (C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq

Explanation: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq is famous for his controversial experiment with token currency.

57. Mansabdari system was introduced in Mughal administration by:

(A) Shah Jahan

(B) Akbar

(D) Babur

Answer: (B) Akbar

Explanation: The Mansabdari system, a military and administrative ranking system, was a key feature of the Mughal administration under Emperor Akbar.

58. “Chauth’ was:

(A) A religious tax imposed by Aurangzeb

(B) Foll tas imposed by Shivaji

(D) Land tax levied by Shivaji on neighbouring States

Answer: (D) Land tax levied by Shivaji on neighbouring States

Explanation: Chauth was a tax equivalent to one-fourth of the land revenue, which the Marathas collected from territories as a fee for not being subjected to raids.

59. Bengal was partitioned in 1905 under the viceroyalty of:

(A) Lord Curzon

(B) Lord Dufferin

(D) Lord Minto

Answer: (A) Lord Curzon

Explanation: The controversial Partition of Bengal was carried out in 1905 by the then Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon.

60. Match the following:

(a) Cold War (1) Mao (China)

(b) Holy War (2) 1917

(d) The Russian Revolution (4) US vs. USSR

(A) (a)4 (b)1 (c)2 (d)3

(B) (a)3 (b)2 (c)4 (d)1

(D) (a)2 (b)1 (c)4 (d)23

Answer: (C) (a)4 (b)3 (c)1 (d)2

Explanation: Cold War (US vs. USSR), Holy War (Crusades), The Long March (Mao), The Russian Revolution (1917).

61. Where did Mahatma Gandhi first apply his technique of Satyagraha?

(A) Dandi

(B) Champaran

(D) South Africa

Answer: (D) South Africa

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi first developed and employed the concept of Satyagraha (non-violent resistance) during his time in South Africa.

62. The Azad Hind Fauj was formed in:

(A) 1937

(B) 1942

(D) 1945

Answer: (B) 1942

Explanation: The Azad Hind Fauj (Indian National Army) was first formed in 1942 under Mohan Singh.

63. ‘Deshbandhu’ is the title of:

(A) B. R. Ambedkar

(B) C. R. Das

(D) Rabindranath Tagore

Answer: (B) C. R. Das

Explanation: Chittaranjan Das, a prominent freedom fighter, was popularly known as ‘Deshbandhu’ (Friend of the Nation).

64. The Indus Valley houses were built of:

(A) Bricks

(B) Bamboos

(D) Wood

Answer: (A) Bricks

Explanation: The cities of the Indus Valley Civilization were characterized by their use of standardized baked bricks for construction.

65. The paintings in the Ajanta and Ellora caves are indicative of the development of art under the:

(A) Rashtrakutas

(B) Pallavas

(D) Chalukyas

Answer: (D) Chalukyas

Explanation: While multiple dynasties contributed, the Chalukyas and Rashtrakutas were major patrons of the art and architecture at Ajanta and Ellora.

66. Tansen, a great musician of his times, was in the court of:

(A) Jahangir

(B) Akbar

(D) Bahadur Shah

Answer: (B) Akbar

Explanation: Tansen

was one of the ‘Navaratnas’ (Nine Jewels) at the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.

67. Which one of the following is an igneous rock?

(A) Sandstone

(B) Shale

(D) Granite

Answer: (D) Granite

Explanation: Granite is an intrusive igneous rock formed from the slow cooling of magma beneath the Earth’s surface.

68. The greatest erosive power of a river is associated with:

(A) Gorges

(B) Meanders

(D) V-shaped valley

Answer: (A) Gorges

Explanation: Gorges are formed by intense downward erosion by a river, indicating very high erosive power, often in its upper course.

69. The Valley of Kashmir is located on a:

(A) Nappe

(B) Fault trough

(D) Plain

Answer: (B) Fault trough

Explanation: The Kashmir Valley is an intermontane valley, essentially a basin or a fault trough, filled with sediments.

70. Solar energy is received by the earth through:

(A) Conduction

(B) Radiation

(D) Refraction

Answer: (B) Radiation

Explanation: Energy from the sun travels through the vacuum of space to Earth in the form of electromagnetic radiation.

71. The planets on either side of the earth are:

(A) Mars and Jupiter

(B) Mercury and Venus

(D) Mars and Venus

Answer: (D) Mars and Venus

Explanation: In our solar system, Earth’s orbit lies between the orbits of Venus and Mars.

72. India leads the world in the export of:

(A) Coffee

(B) Cotton

(D) Mica

Answer: (D) Mica

Explanation: India has historically been one of the world’s largest producers and exporters of sheet mica.

73. Which one of the following factors is the main reason for the peninsular rivers to flow towards the east?

(A) Western part is rainy

(B) Western Ghats act as major water divide

(D) Eastern Ghats are lower than the Western Ghats

Answer: (D) Eastern Ghats are lower than the Western Ghats

Explanation: The general eastward slope of the peninsular plateau, with the Western Ghats being higher than the Eastern Ghats, directs the flow of most major rivers.

74. Which one of the following is the largest lake in the world?

(A) Lake Superior

(B) Caspian Sea

(D) Lake Victoria

Answer: (B) Caspian Sea

Explanation: By surface area, the Caspian Sea is the world’s largest lake or inland body of water.

75. Detroit (USA) is famous for which of the following industries?

(A) Iron and Steel

(B) Automobile

(D) Cotton textile

Answer: (B) Automobile

Explanation: Detroit is famously known as the “Motor City” for being the historical center of the U.S. automobile industry.

76. In India, Dhariwal and Ludhiana towns are famous for:

(A) Silk textiles

(B) Woollen textiles

(D) Synthetic textiles

Answer: (B) Woollen textiles

Explanation: Ludhiana and Dhariwal in Punjab are major centers for the hosiery and woollen textile industry in India.

77. Fibre crops are:

(A) Jute, sugarcane, linseed and rice

(B) Cotton, maize, tobacco and banana

(D) Hemp, cotton, maize and saffron

Answer: (C) Cotton, hemp, jute and mesta

Explanation: This group consists entirely of crops grown for their fibers.

78. Which one of the following ports is located on the eastern coast of India?

(A) Kandla

(B) Kochi

(D) Paradeep

Answer: (D) Paradeep

Explanation: Paradeep Port is located in Odisha on the eastern coast of India; the others are on the western coast.

79. The court language of the Mughals was:

(A) Urdu

(B) Hindi

(D) Persian

Answer: (D) Persian

Explanation: Persian was the official language of administration and the court during the Mughal Empire.

80. The term Utility means:

(A) Usefulness of a commodity

(B) The satisfaction which a commodity yields

(D) None of these

Answer: (B) The satisfaction which a commodity yields

Explanation: In economics, utility refers to the total satisfaction or benefit derived from consuming a good or service.

81. Under flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by:

(A) The Central Bank of the country

(B) The forces of demand and supply in the foreign exchange market

(D) The purchasing power of currencies

Answer: (B) The forces of demand and supply in the foreign exchange market

Explanation: In a floating or flexible exchange rate system, currency prices are determined by the market forces of supply and demand.

82. The size of the market for a product refers to:

(A) The number of people in the given area

(B) The geographical areas served by the producers

(D) The number of potential buyers of the product

Answer: (D) The number of potential buyers of the product

Explanation: Market size is defined by the number of potential customers or the total potential revenue from those customers.

83. Economic problem arises mainly due to:

(A) Over population

(B) Unemployment

(D) Lack of industries

Answer: (C) Scarcity of resources

Explanation: The fundamental economic problem is the issue of having unlimited human wants in a world of limited resources.

84. Bank rate is the rate of interest:

(A) At which public borrows money from Commercial Bank

(B) At which public borrows money from RBI

(D) At which Commercial Banks borrow money from public.

Answer: (C) At which Commercial Banks borrow money from RBI

Explanation: The bank rate is the interest rate at which a nation’s central bank lends money to domestic commercial banks.

85. If the change in demand for a commodity is at a faster rate than change in the price of the commodity, then the demand is:

(A) Perfectly inelastic

(B) Elastic

(D) Inelastic

Answer: (B) Elastic

Explanation: Elastic demand occurs when the percentage change in quantity demanded is greater than the percentage change in price.

86. Which of the following are not fixed costs?

(A) Rent on land

(B) Municipal taxes

(D) Insurance charges

Answer: (C) Wages paid to workers

Explanation: Wages paid to workers are typically a variable cost, as they change with the level of production or output.

87. The demand for money, according to Keynes, is for:

(A) Speculative motive

(B) Transaction motive

(D) All the above motives

Answer: (D) All the above motives

Explanation: Keynesian theory posits three motives for demanding money: transactions, precautionary, and speculative.

88. Which of the following is the largest employer in India?

(A) Food Corporation of India

(B) Posts and Telegraphs Department

(D) Steel Authority of India

Answer: (C) Indian Railways

Explanation: Indian Railways is one of the world’s largest employers and the largest in India.

89. The main objective of Antyodaya Programme is:

(A) Upliftment of urban poor

(B) Upliftment of industrial workers

(D) Upliftment of farmers.

Answer: (C) Uplift

ment of rural poor

Explanation: The Antyodaya Anna Yojana program aims to provide highly subsidized food to the poorest of the poor families in rural and urban areas.

90. The Reserve Bank of India issues currency notes under the:

(A) Fixed fiduciary system

(B) Maximum fiduciary system

(D) Proportional reserve system

Answer: (C) Minimum reserve system

Explanation: Since 1956, the RBI issues currency under the Minimum Reserve System, requiring it to maintain a minimum reserve of gold and foreign exchange.

91. The financial capital of India is:

(A) Mumbai

(B) Chennai

(D) Chandigarh

Answer: (A) Mumbai

Explanation: Mumbai is widely recognized as the financial, commercial, and entertainment capital of India.

92. The Chairman of the Eleventh Finance Commission was:

(A) A.M. Khusro

(B) Vijay Kelkar

(D) Manmohan Singh

Answer: (A) A.M. Khusro

Explanation: Prof. A.M. Khusro was the chairman of the Eleventh Finance Commission of India (1998-2000).

93. India adopted the Five-Year Plans from:

(A) France

(B) Former USSR

(D) England

Answer: (B) Former USSR

Explanation: India’s model of centralized Five-Year Plans for economic development was inspired by the Soviet Union (USSR).

94. In the Centre-State financial relations in India, Gadgil Formula is used in:

(A) Division of tax revenue

(B) Formulating the policy for fresh borrowings

(D) Allocating Central Plan assistance between States

Answer: (D) Allocating Central Plan assistance between States

Explanation: The Gadgil formula was a framework for determining the allocation of central assistance for state plans in India.

95. The concept of mixed economy means:

(A) To have balanced development in the agricultural and industrial sector

(B) Simultaneous development of the rural and urban sector

(D) Simultaneous existence of the private and public sector

Answer: (D) Simultaneous existence of the private and public sector

Explanation: A mixed economy is an economic system that features characteristics of both capitalism (private sector) and socialism (public sector).

96. Who said, “Man is a Social Animal”?

(A) Plato

(B) Aristotle

(D) Socrates

Answer: (B) Aristotle

Explanation: This famous statement is attributed to the Greek philosopher Aristotle, highlighting the inherently social nature of human beings.

97. The number of non-permanent members of the Security Council is:

(A) 6

(B) 8

(D) 12

Answer: (C) 10

Explanation: The United Nations Security Council has 5 permanent members and 10 non-permanent members elected for two-year terms.

98. Right to free education within certain limits is:

(A) Guaranteed as a Fundamental Right

(B) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy

(D) Ignored by the Constitution

Answer: (B) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation: At the time of this exam in 2002, the Right to Education was part of the Directive Principles (Article 45); it became a Fundamental Right later.

99. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two full terms?

(A) S. Radhakrishnan

(B) V.V. Giri

(D) M. Hidayathullah

Answer: (A) S. Radhakrishnan

Explanation: Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan served two terms as Vice-President from 1952 to 1962.

100. No person can be employed in factories or mines unless he is above the age of:

(A) 12 years

(B) 14 years

(D) 20 years

Answer: (B) 14 years

Explanation: Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 in factories, mines, or other hazardous jobs.

101. One who has a good taste for food and enjoys it:

(A) Parasite

(B) Stoic

(D) Curator

Answer: (C) Gourmet

Explanation: A gourmet is a person with a refined taste for good food and drink.

102. A person who is fond of fighting:

(A) Centipede

(B) Brunette

(D) Belligerent

Answer: (D) Belligerent

Explanation: A belligerent person is hostile, aggressive, and eager to fight.

103. A person who goes on horseback:

(A) Epicurean

(B) Connoisseur

(D) Pedestrian

Answer: (C) Equestrian

Explanation: An equestrian is a person who rides horses.

104. The principle of co-education in India has been of confused kind.

(A) NHUY

(B) Principle

(D) Unlimited

Answer: (B) Principle

Explanation: “Principle” is the correct word to fit the context of a concept or policy.

105. The principle of co-education in India has been of confused kind.

(A) Large

(B) Confused

(D) Move

Answer: (B) Confused

Explanation: The passage describes a mixed or “confused” situation with different patterns in North and South India.

106. In the northern part of our country, there are a large number of co-educational schools.

(A) Number

(B) Amount

(D) None of these

Answer: (A) Large

Explanation: The phrase “a large number” correctly indicates a great quantity of schools. (Note: The provided options seem mismatched with the blank, “large” from Q105 fits here).

107. While in the southern part the number of unisex schools are more.

(A) Nushing

(B) Reading

(D) Playing

Answer: (C) Number

Explanation: The phrase “the number of unisex schools” is grammatically correct and fits the context. (Note: The provided options seem mismatched with the blank, “number” from Q106 fits here).

108. …where the rural masses… study both boys and girls together

(A) Right

(B) Teaching

(D) Playing

Answer: (A) study

Explanation: The context implies that boys and girls “study” together in rural schools. (Note: The provided options are mismatched).

109. They favour that co-education is an urban phenomenon and that this system is basically good.

(A) Favour

(B) Interested

(D) Good

Answer: (A) Favour

Explanation: The context suggests that some people “favour” or support the system of co-education.

110. They favour that co-education is an urban phenomenon and that this system is basically good.

(A) Sustaining

(B) Rewarding

(D) Basically

Answer: (D) Basically

Explanation: The word “basically” fits to describe the fundamental nature of the system as good.

111. …that co-education is an urban phenomenon…

(A) Urban

(B) Futile

(D) Rural

Answer: (A) Urban

Explanation: The passage contrasts rural areas with the idea that co-education is often seen as an “urban” phenomenon.

112. …and that this system is rewarding.

(A) is

(B) was

(D) Good

Answer: (A) is

Explanation: The verb “is” completes the sentence “this system is rewarding”.

113. …and that this system (113).

(A) helps

(B) Vague

(D) None of these

Answer: (A) helps

Explanation: The sentence likely concludes that the system “helps” in some way. (Note: The provided options seem mismatched; the original document had “rewarding” for 112/113, and the prompt implies a single fill-in-the-blank for 113. Assuming the blank is for a verb implying a positive outcome).

114. Which of the given sentences should be the first sentence?

(a) That responsibility rests upon this assembly, a sovereign body representing the sovereign people of India.

(b) Some of these pains continue even now.

(d) Before the birth of freedom we have endured all the pains of labour and our hearts are heavy with the memory of this sorrow.

Answer: (C) (c)

Explanation: Sentence (c) introduces the main theme of freedom, power, and responsibility, making it a good topic sentence.

115. Which of the given sentences should be the second sentence?

(a) That responsibility rests upon this assembly, a sovereign body representing the sovereign people of India.

(b) Some of these pains continue even now.

(d) Before the birth of freedom we have endured all the pains of labour and our hearts are heavy with the memory of this sorrow.

Answer: (A) (a)

Explanation: Sentence (a) directly follows up on the “responsibility” mentioned in sentence (c).

116. Which of the given sentences should be the third sentence?

(a) That responsibility rests upon this assembly, a sovereign body representing the sovereign people of India.

(b) Some of these pains continue even now.

(d) Before the birth of freedom we have endured all the pains of labour and our hearts are heavy with the memory of this sorrow.

Answer: (B) (d)

Explanation: Sentence (d) provides a historical context of past struggles before freedom, creating a logical flow.

117. Which of the given sentences should be the fourth sentence?

(a) That responsibility rests upon this assembly, a sovereign body representing the sovereign people of India.

(b) Some of these pains continue even now.

(d) Before the birth of freedom we have endured all the pains of labour and our hearts are heavy with the memory of this sorrow.

Answer: (D) (b)

Explanation: Sentence (b) connects the past pains mentioned in (d) to the present, concluding the paragraph.

118. HEADLESS (Antonym)

(A) Irritate

(B) Calculated

(D) Pinacle

Answer: (B) Calculated

Explanation: “Headless” means rash or impetuous, so its antonym is “calculated” or careful.

119. INEPT (Antonym)

(A) Fullness

(B) Common

(D) Fitting

Answer: (D) Fitting

Explanation: “Inept” means unskilled or clumsy, while “fitting” means suitable or appropriate, implying competence.

120. MANOEUVRE (Antonym)

(A) Agency

(B) Madness

(D) Effort

Answer: (C) Rest

Explanation: A “manoeuvre” is a skillful movement or action, while “rest” is the cessation of movement.

121. Which of the following is not a personal characteristic of a good teacher?

(A) Making cheap jokes in the class

(B) Using civilized means to redress his complaints

(D) Upholding the dignity of his profession

Answer: (A) Making cheap jokes in the class

Explanation: Professionalism requires maintaining a respectful and appropriate classroom environment, which excludes making cheap jokes.

122. The most undesirable personal qualities in a teacher are

(A) Cleanliness

(B) Rude behaviour and lack of humour

(D) His mastery over the subject

Answer: (B) Rude behaviour and lack of humour

Explanation: Rude behavior creates a negative learning environment and is highly undesirable in a teacher.

123. Which of the following come in the category of mass-media-

(A) Models

(B) Charts

(D) Specimeans

Answer: (C) Radio television newspapers etc.

Explanation: Radio, television, and newspapers are classic examples of mass media, designed to reach a large audience.

124. Work experience relate education to-

(A) Community

(B) Individual’s life

(D) Productivity

Answer: (C) Productivity for the benefit of both the individual and society

Explanation: Integrating work experience with education aims to make learning relevant and enhance productivity for personal and societal benefit.

125. Vocationalisation of secondary education as an important aim was recommended by-

(A) Secondary Education Commission 1952

(B) Radhakrishnan Commission 1948

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Secondary Education Commission 1952

Explanation: The Secondary Education Commission (1952-53), also known as the Mudaliar Commission, strongly recommended the vocationalization of education.

126. Vocationalisation of education implies:

(A) Giving a strong vocational bias to secondary education

(B) Giving training in a particular vocation

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Giving a strong vocational bias to secondary education

Explanation: It means orienting secondary education towards practical skills and trades.

127. Which of the following is most suitable for a good teacher?

(A) Makes learning easy

(B) Imparts knowledge

(D) Does nothing

Answer: (A) Makes learning easy

Explanation: A good teacher facilitates understanding and makes the learning process accessible and enjoyable for students.

128. What should be the aim of education?

(A) To develop national feeling

(B) To develop human personality

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: Education should encompass all these aspects for holistic development and societal well-being.

129. When does the academic session begin for the new students in a school?

(A) April 1

(B) May 1

(D) August 1

Answer: (A) April 1

Explanation: In most Indian schools, the new academic session typically begins on April 1st.

130. What should be done to prevent students from going astray?

(A) Guidance

(B) Counselling

(D) No need for (A) and (B)

Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation: Both guidance (providing direction and advice) and counselling (professional support for personal issues) are crucial for students at risk.

131. The best method to motivate a student is:

(A) To give incentives

(B) To give prizes

(D) To create interest in the subject

Answer: (D) To create interest in the subject

Explanation: True motivation comes from intrinsic interest in the subject matter, making learning more sustainable and effective.

132. Discipline implies:

(A) Freedom

(B) Following rules

(D) Order

Answer: (B) Following rules

Explanation: Discipline, in an educational context, primarily refers to adherence to established rules and order.

133. Which of the following is not a teaching aid?

(A) Computer

(B) Blackboard

(D) Tape recorder

Answer: (D) Tape recorder

Explanation: While a tape recorder can be used in teaching, it’s not a visual or interactive “aid” in the same way as a computer, blackboard, or projector.

134. Which of the following is most important for a student?

(A) To be punctual

(B) To obey his parents

(D) To be regular in studies

Answer: (D) To be regular in studies

Explanation: Regularity in studies is crucial for consistent learning and academic success.

135. What should a teacher do if a student does not attend his class regularly?

(A) Punish him severely

(B) Inform his parents

(D) Make him realize his mistake

Answer: (C) Try to find out the reason for his absence

Explanation: Understanding the underlying cause of irregular attendance allows the teacher to address the issue effectively and support the student.

136. ‘Child centred education’ refers to:

(A) Education as given in a day school

(B) Education according to the needs of the child

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Education according to the needs of the child

Explanation: Child-centered education emphasizes tailoring learning experiences to the individual needs, interests, and developmental stages of each student.

137. Which of the following is not included in the ‘three R’s’?

(A) Reading

(B) Writing

(D) Reasoning

Answer: (D) Reasoning

Explanation: The “three R’s” traditionally refer to Reading, wRiting, and aRithmetic (Rhythmatics is not a recognized “R”).

138. Which of the following describes the nature of education?

(A) Dynamic

(B) Social

(D) Static

Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation: Education is dynamic as it constantly evolves, and social as it prepares individuals for society and involves interaction.

139. Who can be a good leader?

(A) One who is autocratic

(B) One who is democratic

(D) One who is authoritative

Answer: (B) One who is democratic

Explanation: A democratic leader involves others in decision-making and fosters participation, leading to better outcomes and acceptance.

140. Which of the following should be considered by a good teacher?

(A) Students’ individual differences

(B) Students’ economic background

(D) None of the above

Answer: (A) Students’ individual differences

Explanation: Recognizing and adapting to students’ individual differences is fundamental to effective teaching.

141. The children of working mothers can be helped by:

(A) Home tutors

(B) Nursery schools

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: All listed options can provide support and care for children of working mothers.

142. The most effective way to deal with the problem of indiscipline in the class is:

(A) To inform the parents

(B) To ignore the misbehaviour

(D) To find out the reasons for indiscipline and deal with it accordingly

Answer: (D) To find out the reasons for indiscipline and deal with it accordingly

Explanation: Addressing the root causes of indiscipline is the most effective and sustainable approach to managing classroom behavior.

143. Which of the following is an example of an informal agency of education?

(A) School

(B) College

(D) Library

Answer: (C) Family

Explanation: Informal education happens spontaneously through daily experiences, with the family being a primary informal agency.

144. Which of the following is a drawback of the lecture method?

(A) It encourages rote learning

(B) It involves the teacher in a one-way communication

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: The lecture method is often criticized for promoting passive learning, limited interaction, and insufficient student engagement.

145. The quality of school education largely depends on:

(A) Infrastructure

(B) Financial provision

(D) None of the above

Answer: (C) Quality of teacher education

Explanation: Well-trained and competent teachers are the most crucial factor in determining the quality of education.

146. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good test?

(A) Reliability

(B) Validity

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: A good test should be reliable (consistent), valid (measures what it intends to measure), and practical (feasible to administer and score).

147. The most important quality of a teacher at higher education level is:

(A) Knowledge of subject

(B) Good communication skills

(D) Discipline

Answer: (C) Research orientation

Explanation: At the higher education level, teachers are often expected to contribute to their field through research, alongside teaching.

148. The most significant challenge in teaching is:

(A) Maintaining discipline

(B) Making teaching interesting

(D) Preparing notes for lectures

Answer: (B) Making teaching interesting

Explanation: Engaging students and making learning captivating is crucial for effective instruction and student motivation.

149. The main purpose of teaching is:

(A) To transmit knowledge

(B) To facilitate learning

(D) To promote social values

Answer: (B) To facilitate learning

Explanation: The ultimate goal of teaching is to enable students to acquire knowledge, skills, and understanding.

150. A good teacher is one who:

(A) Gives notes to students

(B) Explains concepts clearly

(D) Inspires students to learn

Answer: (D) Inspires students to learn

Explanation: An inspiring teacher ignites curiosity and a passion for learning, going beyond mere content delivery.

151. If a student is unable to answer a question in the class, a teacher should:

(A) Ignore the student

(B) Scold the student

(D) Pass on to the next student

Answer: (C) Rephrase the question or provide clues

Explanation: This approach supports the student’s learning and encourages participation without shaming them.

152. Which of the following is a characteristic of democratic leadership in a classroom?

(A) Teacher makes all decisions

(B) Students participate in decision-making

(D) Teacher gives rewards and punishments

Answer: (B) Students participate in decision-making

Explanation: Democratic leadership involves shared decision-making and active participation from the students.

153. The best way to evaluate student performance is by:

(A) Conducting frequent tests

(B) Using multiple assessment methods

(D) Relying solely on final exams

Answer: (B) Using multiple assessment methods

Explanation: A variety of assessment methods provides a more comprehensive and accurate picture of student learning.

154. What is the role of homework in education?

(A) To keep students busy

(B) To reinforce learning and practice skills

(D) To reduce the teacher’s workload

Answer: (B) To reinforce learning and practice skills

Explanation: Homework is designed to consolidate classroom learning and provide opportunities for independent practice.

155. Effective teaching is primarily a function of:

(A) Teacher’s personality

(B) Teacher’s subject knowledge

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: A combination of these qualities contributes to effective teaching.

**15

156. The purpose of continuous and comprehensive evaluation is to:

(A) Assess the learning outcomes of students

(B) Reduce the burden of exams

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: Continuous and comprehensive evaluation aims for holistic assessment, reduced stress, and ongoing feedback.

157. The main characteristic of a good curriculum is:

(A) It is rigid and fixed

(B) It is student-centered

(D) It is theoretical

Answer: (B) It is student-centered

Explanation: A good curriculum focuses on the needs and interests of the students, promoting active learning.

158. Which of the following is a disadvantage of team teaching?

(A) Lack of coordination among teachers

(B) Increased workload for teachers

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: Team teaching can face challenges related to coordination, workload distribution, and individual accountability.

159. The primary goal of a teacher in the classroom is:

(A) To maintain discipline

(B) To complete the syllabus

(D) To prepare students for exams

Answer: (C) To facilitate student learning and development

Explanation: The core purpose of a teacher is to guide and support students in their learning journey and overall growth.

160. What is the importance of a lesson plan for a teacher?

(A) It helps in organizing teaching activities

(B) It ensures proper coverage of the syllabus

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: Lesson plans are crucial tools for teachers to structure their lessons, ensure curriculum coverage, and manage time efficiently.

161. A teacher should be:

(A) A friend, philosopher, and guide

(B) A dictator

(D) A distant observer

Answer: (A) A friend, philosopher, and guide

Explanation: This phrase encapsulates the multifaceted supportive role a teacher should play in a student’s life.

162. The concept of ‘micro-teaching’ was developed by:

(A) B.F. Skinner

(B) D.W. Allen

(D) Lev Vygotsky

Answer: (B) D.W. Allen

Explanation: Dwight W. Allen and his colleagues at Stanford University are credited with developing the concept of micro-teaching.

163. The purpose of diagnostic testing is to:

(A) Identify students’ strengths and weaknesses

(B) Grade students’ performance

(D) Predict future academic success

Answer: (A) Identify students’ strengths and weaknesses

Explanation: Diagnostic testing aims to pinpoint specific areas where students need help or excel, guiding instruction.

164. What is the role of technology in education?

(A) To replace teachers

(B) To supplement and enhance learning

(D) To create more workload

Answer: (B) To supplement and enhance learning

Explanation: Technology should serve as a tool to support and improve the educational process, not replace human interaction.

165. A teacher’s most important asset is:

(A) Knowledge of subject matter

(B) Ability to control students

(D) Good salary

Answer: (C) Passion for teaching

Explanation: A genuine passion for teaching fuels dedication, innovation, and effective engagement with students.

166. Which of the following is an effective method of teaching at the primary level?

(A) Lecture method

(B) Discussion method

(D) Demonstration method

Answer: (C) Play-way method

Explanation: The play-way method is highly effective for young children as it makes learning enjoyable and natural.

167. The purpose of educational psychology is to:

(A) Understand how people learn

(B) Design effective teaching methods

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: Educational psychology aims to understand learning processes, improve teaching, and address educational challenges.

168. The concept of ‘inclusive education’ means:

(A) Educating all children in special schools

(B) Educating children with special needs in regular schools

(D) Educating children based on their socio-economic status

Answer: (B) Educating children with special needs in regular schools

Explanation: Inclusive education promotes the integration of students with disabilities and diverse needs into mainstream classrooms.

169. What is the importance of a healthy learning environment?

(A) It reduces absenteeism

(B) It promotes positive student behavior

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: A positive and healthy learning environment contributes to better attendance, behavior, and academic outcomes.

170. Which of the following is a barrier to effective communication in the classroom?

(A) Clear language

(B) Active listening

(D) Open-ended questions

Answer: (C) Noise and distractions

Explanation: Environmental factors like noise and distractions can significantly hinder clear communication.

171. The main objective of value education is:

(A) To instill moral values

(B) To improve academic performance

(D) To develop physical fitness

Answer: (A) To instill moral values

Explanation: Value education primarily focuses on the development of ethical principles and moral character in students.

172. The term ‘intelligence quotient’ (IQ) was first coined by:

(A) Alfred Binet

(B) William Stern

(D) David Wechsler

Answer: (B) William Stern

Explanation: The German psychologist William Stern introduced the term “intelligence quotient” (IQ) in 1912.

173. What is the role of continuous professional development for teachers?

(A) To increase their salary

(B) To keep them updated with new teaching methods

(D) To reduce their workload

Answer: (B) To keep them updated with new teaching methods

Explanation: Continuous professional development helps teachers stay current with educational research, pedagogy, and best practices.

174. Which of the following is a characteristic of a constructivist classroom?

(A) Teacher-centered instruction

(B) Rote memorization

(D) Standardized testing only

Answer: (C) Active student participation and discovery learning

Explanation: Constructivism emphasizes that learners build their own understanding through active engagement and exploration.

175. The purpose of formative assessment is to:

(A) Assign grades to students

(B) Provide ongoing feedback for learning improvement

(D) Compare student performance with others

Answer: (B) Provide ongoing feedback for learning improvement

Explanation: Formative assessment is used to monitor student learning and provide timely feedback to guide instruction.

176. Which of the following is a characteristic of a democratic classroom?

(A) Fear of punishment

(B) Teacher is the sole authority

(D) Lack of rules

Answer: (C) Shared responsibility and decision-making

Explanation: A democratic classroom fosters a sense of ownership and encourages students to participate in setting rules and making choices.

177. The most effective way to manage a large class is by:

(A) Using strict disciplinary measures

(B) Dividing students into smaller groups

(D) Ignoring individual needs

Answer: (B) Dividing students into smaller groups

Explanation: Group work allows for more individualized attention and active participation in larger classes.

178. What is the importance of co-curricular activities in school?

(A) To reduce academic pressure

(B) To develop holistic personality

(D) To replace academic subjects

Answer: (B) To develop holistic personality

Explanation: Co-curricular activities play a vital role in developing students’ social, emotional, and physical skills, contributing to overall personal growth.

179. The purpose of education is to:

(A) Impart knowledge

(B) Develop critical thinking

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: Education aims to provide knowledge, enhance analytical skills, and encourage innovative thinking.

180. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good question paper?

(A) It is easy to score

(B) It covers the entire syllabus

(D) It tests only rote memory

Answer: (B) It covers the entire syllabus

Explanation: A good question paper should be comprehensive and assess understanding across the entire curriculum.

181. What is the role of motivation in learning?

(A) It has no role

(B) It enhances engagement and performance

(D) It is only for gifted students

Answer: (B) It enhances engagement and performance

Explanation: Motivation is crucial for engaging students and improving their learning outcomes and overall performance.

182. The term ‘intelligence’ refers to:

(A) Ability to memorize information

(B) Ability to solve problems and adapt to new situations

(D) Ability to perform well in exams

Answer: (B) Ability to solve problems and adapt to new situations

Explanation: Intelligence is generally defined as the capacity to acquire and apply knowledge and skills, especially in novel situations.

183. Which of the following is a characteristic of a democratic classroom?

(A) Teacher-centered instruction

(B) Student autonomy and self-governance

(D) Passive learning

Answer: (B) Student autonomy and self-governance

Explanation: Democratic classrooms empower students with a degree of control over their learning and classroom environment.

184. The concept of ‘lifelong learning’ implies:

(A) Learning only during childhood

(B) Learning that continues throughout one’s life

(D) Learning only for career advancement

Answer: (B) Learning that continues throughout one’s life

Explanation: Lifelong learning emphasizes continuous acquisition of knowledge and skills beyond formal schooling.

185. What is the main purpose of educational research?

(A) To publish academic papers

(B) To improve educational practices

(D) To criticize existing systems

Answer: (B) To improve educational practices

Explanation: Educational research aims to generate knowledge that can lead to better teaching, learning, and educational policies.

186. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good teacher?

(A) Impartiality

(B) Favoritism

(D) Indifference

Answer: (A) Impartiality

Explanation: A good teacher treats all students fairly and without bias.

187. The purpose of a school library is:

(A) To store books

(B) To provide resources for learning and research

(D) To serve as a quiet place

Answer: (B) To provide resources for learning and research

Explanation: A school library is a vital resource center that supports and enhances the educational process.

188. What is the role of parents in a child’s education?

(A) Limited to financial support

(B) Active partners in the learning process

(D) No significant role

Answer: (B) Active partners in the learning process

Explanation: Parental involvement is crucial for a child’s academic success and overall development.

189. The most appropriate teaching method for developing critical thinking is:

(A) Lecture method

(B) Rote memorization

(D) Demonstration

Answer: (C) Problem-solving and discussion

Explanation: These methods encourage students to analyze, evaluate, and synthesize information, fostering critical thinking.

190. What is the importance of a positive classroom climate?

(A) It encourages student participation

(B) It reduces behavioral problems

(D) All the above

Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation: A positive classroom climate fosters engagement, minimizes disruptive behavior, and builds a supportive community.

191. Which of the following is a characteristic of a gifted child?

(A) Below average intelligence

(B) Limited creativity

(D) Poor academic performance

Answer: (C) High intellectual ability and curiosity

Explanation: Gifted children typically display advanced cognitive abilities, a strong desire to learn, and often excel academically.

192. The primary aim of education is to enable individuals to:

(A) Earn a lot of money

(B) Become responsible citizens

(D) Memorize facts

Answer: (B) Become responsible citizens

Explanation: Education aims to equip individuals with the knowledge, skills, and values necessary to contribute positively to society.

193. What is the role of assessment in learning?

(A) To punish students for mistakes

(B) To measure and improve learning

(D) To solely determine pass/fail

Answer: (B) To measure and improve learning

Explanation: Assessment provides valuable information to both students and teachers for monitoring progress and enhancing the learning process.

194. The concept of ‘learning by doing’ is associated with:

(A) Jean Piaget

(B) John Dewey

(D) Sigmund Freud

Answer: (B) John Dewey

Explanation: John Dewey, a prominent educational philosopher, strongly advocated for experiential learning, or “learning by doing.”

195. Which of the following is a characteristic of a good learning environment?

(A) Distractions and noise

(B) Supportive and collaborative

(D) Competitive only

Answer: (B) Supportive and collaborative

Explanation: A conducive learning environment fosters support, cooperation, and a sense of community among learners.

196. The purpose of remedial teaching is to:

(A) Punish slow learners

(B) Provide additional support to struggling students

(D) Accelerate learning for all students

Answer: (B) Provide additional support to struggling students

Explanation: Remedial teaching targets specific learning gaps and offers tailored instruction to help students overcome difficulties.

197. Which of the following is a benefit of peer learning?

(A) Reduces teacher’s workload

(B) Promotes collaboration and communication skills

(D) Increases competition among students

Answer: (B) Promotes collaboration and communication skills

Explanation: Peer learning encourages students to work together, articulate ideas, and learn from one another.

198. The most important factor influencing a student’s learning is:

(A) Teacher’s qualifications

(B) Student’s motivation and effort

(D) Parental wealth

Answer: (B) Student’s motivation and effort

Explanation: While external factors play a role, a student’s intrinsic motivation and willingness to put in effort are paramount for successful learning.

199. What is the significance of play in early childhood education?

(A) It’s just for fun

(B) It promotes physical development only

(D) It’s a waste of time

Answer: (C) It fosters cognitive, social, and emotional development

Explanation: Play is crucial for holistic development in young children, contributing to various aspects of their growth.

200. The primary purpose of feedback in teaching and learning is to:

(A) Criticize student performance

(B) Provide information for improvement

(D) Compare students with their peers

Answer: (B) Provide information for improvement

Explanation: Effective feedback offers constructive information to help students understand their strengths and weaknesses and guides them toward better learning.

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