1. Remainder when (angle 1 + angle 2 + … + angle 100) is divided by 12
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Answer: 6
Explanation: This question likely pertains to properties of arithmetic progressions or specific angle sum properties.
2. Number of positive integers ≤ 3600 that are prime to 3600
A) 720
B) 840
C) 960
D) 1080
Answer: 960
Explanation: This can be solved using Euler’s totient function, ϕ(n)=n∏p∣n(1−1/p).
3. If (a, b) = 1 and c/b then (a, c) is
A) a
B) b
C) c
D) 1
Answer: 1
Explanation: If a and b are coprime, and c divides b, then a and c must also be coprime.
4. Number of primitive roots modulo 7
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: 2
Explanation: The number of primitive roots modulo a prime p is ϕ(ϕ(p)).
5. The integral ∫√(a² – x²) dx converges to
A) πa2/2
B) πa2/4
C) πa2
D) 0
Answer: πa2/4 (or arc sine form)
Explanation: This is the area of a quarter circle with radius ‘a’.
6. If [x] is the integral part of x, then ∫₀⁶ ⌊x² + x⌋ dx
A) 120
B) 138
C) 150
D) 162
Answer: 138
Explanation: This integral involves the floor function and requires evaluating the integral over intervals where ⌊x2+x⌋ is constant.
7. (Incomplete/garbled in document)
A) Option A
B) Option B
C) Option C
D) Option D
Answer: –
Explanation: The question is incomplete.
8. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, then A ∩ B
A) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
B) {2, 3, 4}
C) {5, 6}
D) {1}
Answer: “{2, 3, 4}”
Explanation: The intersection of two sets contains elements common to both sets.
9. A = {x ∈ ℝ : x ≥ 2}, B = {x ∈ ℝ : x < 4}, A ∩ B =
A) (−∞,∞)
B) (2,4]
C) [2,4)
D) (4,∞)
Answer: “[2, 4)”
Explanation: The intersection includes all real numbers greater than or equal to 2 and strictly less than 4.
10. If f(x) = 2^x, then f(0), f(1), f(2)… are in
A) Arithmetic Progression
B) Geometric Progression
C) Harmonic Progression
D) Arithmetico-Geometric Progression
Answer: Geometric Progression
Explanation: In a geometric progression, each term after the first is found by multiplying the previous one by a fixed, non-zero number called the common ratio.
11. If (a + b) = a + ib, then (b + ia)^5 is equal to
A) 3z2−2/3
B) −3z2+2/3
C) −3z2−2/3
D) 3z2+2/3
Answer: -3z² – 2/3
Explanation: This involves complex number manipulation and binomial expansion.
12. Vertices z1,z2,z3 of an equilateral triangle with z as centroid, then z1+z2+z3=
A) z
B) 2z
C) 3z
D) 0
Answer: 3z
Explanation: The centroid of a triangle with vertices z1,z2,z3 is (z1+z2+z3)/3.
13. Eccentricity of ellipse: 9×2+5y2–30y=0
A) (1−(9/5))
B) (1−(5/9))
C) (1+(5/9))
D) (1+(9/5))
Answer: (1−(5/9))
Explanation: The eccentricity of an ellipse is determined by the ratio of the semi-minor and semi-major axes.
14. Parametric equations of hyperbola
A) x=acosθ,y=bsinθ
B) x=asecθ,y=btanθ
C) x=atanθ,y=bsecθ
D) x=asinθ,y=bcosθ
Answer: “x = a sec θ, y = b tan θ”
Explanation: These are the standard parametric equations for a hyperbola centered at the origin.
15. Difference between acute angles of a right triangle is (3π)/10 radians. The angles in degrees
A) 60∘,30∘
B) 72∘,18∘
C) 45∘,45∘
D) 54∘,36∘
Answer: “72°, 18°”
Explanation: In a right triangle, the two acute angles sum to 90∘. Use the given difference to solve.
16. General solution of tan3θ∗tanθ=1
A) θ=(2n+1)π/4
B) θ=nπ/4
C) θ=(2n+1)π/8
D) θ=nπ/8
Answer: θ=(2n+1)π/8
Explanation: Use the identity tanAtanB=1⟹A+B=(2n+1)π/2.
17. ∫√x (4–x2)(1/4) dx is
A) Divergent
B) Convergent
C) Oscillating
D) Undetermined
Answer: Convergent
Explanation: The convergence of the integral depends on the behavior of the integrand at the limits and any singularities.
18. % error in area when 2% error in side measurement
A) 2%
B) 4%
C) 6%
D) 8%
Answer: 4%
Explanation: For an area calculated from a side (e.g., A=s2), a 2% error in ‘s’ leads to approximately a 2×2%=4% error in ‘A’.
19. Area of cardioid
A) ∫(θ2–1)dθ
B) ∫(θ3–1)dθ
C) ∫(θ–1)dθ
D) ∫(θ4–1)dθ
Answer: ∫(θ3–1)dθ
Explanation: The general formula for the area of a polar curve r=f(θ) is 1/2∫r2dθ.
20. Arc length of y = log(cos x) from x = 0 to x = π/4
A) log(2−1)
B) log(2+1)
C) log(2+1)
D) log(2−1)
Answer: log(2+1)
Explanation: Calculate the derivative dy/dx, then use the arc length formula ∫1+(dy/dx)2dx.
21. If G = ⟨a⟩ is a cyclic group of order n, then a generates how many cyclic subgroups of order p/u
A) σ(n)
B) τ(n)
C) ϕ(n)
D) n
Answer: ϕ(n) where ϕ is Euler’s totient
Explanation: In a cyclic group of order n, the number of generators for a subgroup of order d (where d divides n) is ϕ(d).
22. For every n ∈ ℕ, 27n−1 is divisible by
A) 7
B) 127
C) 128
D) 1
Answer: 127
Explanation: This is due to the property that ak−bk is divisible by a−b. Here 27−1=128−1=127.
23. 10 + 3 + 4 + k divisible by 9. Least value of k =
A) 2
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
Answer: 5
Explanation: For a number to be divisible by 9, the sum of its digits must be divisible by 9.
24. In the expansion of ((zx)/1–zx), constant term is
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) Not determinable
Answer: 1
Explanation: This expression needs clarification but suggests a binomial or series expansion.
25. If A = (x, y), then the power set of A has
A) 2 elements
B) 3 elements
C) 4 elements
D) 8 elements
Answer: 4 elements
Explanation: A set with ‘n’ elements has 2n elements in its power set.
26. If 1+i=a+ib, then a, b =
A) 1, 1
B) 2,2
C) 2/2,2/2
D) 1/2,1/2
Answer: “2/2,2/2”
Explanation: This question seems to be a misinterpretation of 1+i to polar form. If it’s directly equating real and imaginary parts, then a=1,b=1. If it relates to the magnitude, then a=1,b=1. If it refers to eiπ/4, then a=cos(π/4) and b=sin(π/4).
27. Principal amplitude of (1+i) is
A) 0
B) π/2
C) π/4
D) π/8
Answer: π/4
Explanation: The principal amplitude (or argument) of a complex number x+iy is arctan(y/x) in the correct quadrant.
28. Triangle with vertices (4, 0), (–1, –1), and (1, 2) is
A) Equilateral
B) Isosceles
C) Right-angled
D) Isosceles and right-angled
Answer: Isosceles and right-angled
Explanation: Calculate the lengths of the sides and check if any two sides are equal and if the Pythagorean theorem holds.
29. Equation of a circle of radius 5 and concentric with another circle
A) Different center, different radius
B) Same center, new radius formula
C) Different center, new radius formula
D) Same center, same radius
Answer: “Same center, new radius formula”
Explanation: Concentric circles share the same center.
30. Line y = mx + c touches x2=4ay if
A) c=−a/m
B) c=a/m
C) c=a/m2
D) c=−a/m2
Answer: c=a/m2
Explanation: This is a condition for a line to be tangent to a parabola.
31. Equation x³+5x²+5x+6=0 has how many real roots
A) Zero real roots
B) One real root
C) Two real roots
D) Three real roots
Answer: One real root
Explanation: Use the Rational Root Theorem and synthetic division, or analyze the derivative to find local extrema.
32. Principal argument of –x
A) 0
B) π/2
C) π
D) 2π
Answer: π
Explanation: For a negative real number, the principal argument is π.
33. Value of ∫₀⁶ x dx using Trapezoidal Rule (6 parts)
A) 9
B) 12
C) 15
D) 18
Answer: 18
Explanation: The integral of x from 0 to 6 is x²/2 evaluated from 0 to 6, which is (36/2)−0=18. The Trapezoidal Rule will give the exact answer for a linear function.
34. Value of (7C₀+7C₁)(7C₁+7C₂)+…
A) 36
B) 37
C) 27
D) 26
Answer: 3⁷=2187
Explanation: This sum involves binomial coefficients and relates to binomial expansions.
35. Term independent of x in expansion of (x∗ϵ)/(1–ex)
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) Requires expansion
Answer: Requires expansion
Explanation: This requires a series expansion of the denominator or using L’Hopital’s rule if it’s a limit.
36. Matrix is skew-Hermitian if
A) A*=A
B) A*=−A
C) Aᵀ=A
D) Aᵀ=−A
Answer: A†=–A
Explanation: A matrix A is skew-Hermitian if its conjugate transpose (A†) is equal to its negative.
37. If Δ=1 and matrix has determinant 1
A) Symmetric
B) Skew-symmetric
C) Orthogonal
D) Singular
Answer: Orthogonal
Explanation: An orthogonal matrix has a determinant of either 1 or -1.
38. System 3x+2y=7 and 9x+6y=21 has
A) No solution
B) One solution
C) Infinitely many solutions
D) Two solutions
Answer: Infinitely many solutions
Explanation: The second equation is a multiple of the first, indicating dependent equations.
39. Point (3, 2) reflected in y-axis and moved 5 units down
A) (-3, 2)
B) (3, -3)
C) (-3, -3)
D) (3, 7)
Answer: “(-3, -3)”
Explanation: Reflection in the y-axis changes (x,y) to (−x,y), and moving 5 units down changes (x,y) to (x,y−5).
40. If D = 1 + x + y, then divisible by
A) x
B) y
C) Both x and y
D) Neither x nor y
Answer: Both x and y
Explanation: The question is likely from a context where D is a polynomial that simplifies, or it’s implicitly related to specific values of x and y.
41. Basic unit of silicates
A) SiO2
B) SiO32−
C) SiO44−
D) Si2O76−
Answer: SiO44−
Explanation: The basic structural unit of all silicates is the silicon-oxygen tetrahedron.
42. Oxidation state of S in SO3
A) +2
B) +4
C) +6
D) -2
Answer: +6
Explanation: Oxygen typically has an oxidation state of -2. For SO3, x+3(−2)=0⟹x=+6.
43. Compound that does not exist among FCl, ICl, ClF, IF
A) FCl
B) ICl
C) ClF
D) IF
Answer: FCl
Explanation: Interhalogen compounds typically form between a larger halogen and a smaller one. Fluorine is the most electronegative, and FCl is generally not stable or observed.
44. Shape of interhalogen ion ICl4−
A) Tetrahedral
B) Square pyramidal
C) Square planar
D) Octahedral
Answer: Square planar
Explanation: According to VSEPR theory, ICl4− has 4 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs around the central iodine atom, leading to a square planar geometry.
45. Colour of methyl orange (ionized and unionized)
A) Blue, Red
B) Yellow, Red
C) Red, Yellow
D) Green, Blue
Answer: “Red, Yellow”
Explanation: Methyl orange is an indicator that is red in acidic solutions (ionized form) and yellow in basic solutions (unionized form).
46. After alpha decay from U-238, neutrons in atom =
A) 140
B) 142
C) 144
D) 146
Answer: 144
Explanation: Alpha decay reduces the atomic number by 2 and the mass number by 4. U−238→Th−234. Initial neutrons = 238−92=146. After decay, new element has mass 234 and atomic number 90. Neutrons = 234−90=144.
47. Which ion is not expected to be coloured: Cu2+,Mn2+,Ti4+,Fe3+
A) Cu2+
B) Mn2+
C) Ti4+
D) Fe3+
Answer: Ti4+
Explanation: Ti4+ has a d0 electron configuration, meaning no d-d transitions are possible, so it is colorless.
48. TiO2 is
A) Acidic oxide
B) Basic oxide
C) Amphoteric oxide
D) Neutral oxide
Answer: Amphoteric oxide
Explanation: Amphoteric oxides react with both acids and bases.
49. Common oxidation state of lanthanides
A) +1
B) +2
C) +3
D) +4
Answer: +3
Explanation: The most common and stable oxidation state for lanthanides is +3.
50. Compound with lowest oxidation state for central metal ion among: Na[Co(CO)₄], etc.
A) Na[Co(CO)4]
B) Fe(CO)5
C) Ni(CO)4
D) Cr(CO)6
Answer: “Na[Co(CO)₄]”
Explanation: Carbonyl ligands are neutral, so the oxidation state of the metal is determined by the charge on the complex. In Na[Co(CO)4], Co is in the -1 oxidation state.
51. Coordination number of central ion in [Co(NH₃)₆]Cl₃
A) 3
B) 4
C) 6
D) 9
Answer: 6
Explanation: The coordination number is the number of ligands directly bonded to the central metal ion.
52. Variety of coal with recognizable traces of original plant material
A) Anthracite
B) Bituminous
C) Lignite
D) Peat
Answer: Peat
Explanation: Peat is the earliest stage of coal formation and retains much of its original plant structure.
53. Diamond is harder than graphite due to
A) Presence of free electrons
B) Strong metallic bonds
C) Difference in crystalline structure
D) Amorphous nature
Answer: Difference in crystalline structure
Explanation: Diamond has a rigid 3D tetrahedral structure, while graphite has layered hexagonal structures.
54. Fresh urine has no smell but smells later due to
A) Oxidation of uric acid
B) Conversion of urea to ammonia by bacteria
C) Evaporation of water
D) Production of nitrogen gas
Answer: Conversion of urea to ammonia by bacteria
Explanation: Bacteria in the urine break down urea into ammonia, which has a distinct odor.
55. Correct statement(s): Baking soda used in fire extinguishers, Quicklime in glass, Gypsum in POP
A) Only Baking soda used in fire extinguishers
B) Only Quicklime in glass
C) Only Gypsum in POP
D) All are correct
Answer: All are correct
Explanation: These are common applications of the mentioned compounds.
56. Oxidation of thiosulphate by iodine produces
A) SO₂
B) SO₃
C) S₂O₃²⁻
D) S₄O₆²⁻
Answer: S₄O₆²⁻
Explanation: Thiosulphate is oxidized to tetrathionate by iodine.
57. Residue after heating orthoboric acid to red hot
A) Boron
B) Boron oxide
C) Borax
D) Metaboric acid
Answer: Boron oxide
Explanation: Orthoboric acid (H₃BO₃) decomposes upon strong heating to form boron oxide (B₂O₃).
58. Minimum bond angle in Group 16 hydrides is in
A) H₂O
B) H₂S
C) H₂Se
D) H₂Te
Answer: H₂Te
Explanation: As we move down Group 16, the size of the central atom increases, and bond angles generally decrease due to reduced lone pair-bond pair repulsion and increasing bond length.
59. Acidic hydroxide among In(OH)₃, Al(OH)₃, Tl(OH)₃, B(OH)₃
A) In(OH)₃
B) Al(OH)₃
C) Tl(OH)₃
D) B(OH)₃
Answer: B(OH)₃
Explanation: Boron hydroxide (B(OH)₃), also known as boric acid, is acidic. As you go down Group 13, the metallic character increases, and hydroxides become more basic.
60. KI + CuSO₄ solution gives
A) CuSO₄+I₂+K₂S
B) CuI₂+K₂SO₄
C) CuI+I₂+K₂SO₄
D) Cu₂I₂+I₂+K₂SO₄
Answer: CuI+I₂+K₂SO₄
Explanation: This is a redox reaction where Cu²⁺ oxidizes I⁻ to I₂ and is itself reduced to CuI.
61. Among Mn, V — which ion shows higher magnetic moment
A) Mn
B) V
C) Both have similar
D) Cannot be determined
Answer: Mn
Explanation: Magnetic moment is generally higher for ions with more unpaired electrons. Manganese (especially Mn2+) has a d5 configuration, giving it a high magnetic moment.
62. Pair with most similar radii among Ti–Zr, Cr–Mo, Cr–W, Ni–Pb
A) Ti–Zr
B) Cr–Mo
C) Cr–W
D) Ni–Pb
Answer: Cr–W
Explanation: This is an example of the lanthanide contraction, which makes the atomic radii of elements in the second and third transition series very similar in the same group.
63. Element with highest ferromagnetic property
A) Co
B) Ni
C) Fe
D) Gd
Answer: Fe
Explanation: Iron (Fe), Cobalt (Co), and Nickel (Ni) are the primary ferromagnetic elements, with iron exhibiting the strongest ferromagnetic properties at room temperature.
64. Catalyst for synthesis of methyl alcohol
A) Platinum
B) Vanadium pentoxide
C) Zinc chromite
D) Iron
Answer: Zinc chromite
Explanation: Zinc chromite (ZnO−Cr2O3) is a common catalyst used in the synthesis of methanol from synthesis gas.
65. Colored hydrate ion among Sc3+,Cu2+,Zn2+,Cr3+
A) Sc3+
B) Cu2+
C) Zn2+
D) Cr3+
Answer: Cr3+
Explanation: Cr3+ (d3) has unpaired electrons, allowing for d-d transitions which absorb visible light and result in color. Sc3+ (d0) and Zn2+ (d10) are colorless. Cu2+ is also colored, but Cr3+ is specifically mentioned as an example of a colored hydrate ion often discussed in coordination chemistry.
66. Stable oxidation state of gold
A) +1
B) +2
C) +3
D) +4
Answer: +1
Explanation: The most stable oxidation state for gold in many compounds is +1 (aurous compounds), although +3 (auric compounds) is also common.
67. Firemen uniforms are coated with
A) Nylon
B) Rayon
C) Melamine
D) Polyester
Answer: Melamine
Explanation: Melamine is a fire-retardant material used in many applications, including fire-resistant fabrics.
68. Quartz crystals are chemically
A) Calcium carbonate
B) Aluminum oxide
C) Silicon dioxide
D) Iron oxide
Answer: Silicon dioxide
Explanation: Quartz is a mineral composed of silicon and oxygen atoms in a continuous framework of SiO4 silicon-oxygen tetrahedra.
69. Tetraethyl lead is used as
A) Antiseptic
B) Insecticide
C) Petrol additive
D) Fertilizer
Answer: Petrol additive
Explanation: Tetraethyl lead was historically used as an anti-knock agent in gasoline but is now largely phased out due to environmental concerns.
70. Gases used in welding
A) Hydrogen and Oxygen
B) Nitrogen and Oxygen
C) Oxygen and acetylene
D) Carbon dioxide and Argon
Answer: Oxygen and acetylene
Explanation: Oxy-acetylene welding uses a flame produced by the combustion of oxygen and acetylene.
71. Silicon carbide is used in
A) Cooking utensils
B) Insulators
C) Cutting very hard substances
D) Electrical wiring
Answer: Cutting very hard substances
Explanation: Silicon carbide is an extremely hard material, making it suitable for abrasives and cutting tools.
72. Fe, Co, Ni are
A) Alkali metals
B) Alkaline earth metals
C) Transition metals
D) Non-metals
Answer: Transition metals
Explanation: Iron, Cobalt, and Nickel are all located in the d-block of the periodic table, classifying them as transition metals.
73. Monazite is an ore of
A) Iron
B) Copper
C) Aluminum
D) Thorium
Answer: Thorium
Explanation: Monazite is a reddish-brown phosphate mineral containing rare earth metals, including thorium.
74. Actinides range from atomic number
A) 57 to 71
B) 89 to 103
C) 72 to 103
D) 104 to 118
Answer: 89 to 103
Explanation: The actinide series consists of 15 metallic chemical elements with atomic numbers from 89 (actinium) to 103 (lawrencium).
75. Green flame in fireworks due to
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Barium
D) Strontium
Answer: Barium
Explanation: Barium compounds are commonly used in fireworks to produce a vibrant green color.
76. Inorganic benzene
A) Boron nitride
B) Borazine
C) Boron carbide
D) Boric acid
Answer: Borazine
Explanation: Borazine (B₃N₃H₆) is isoelectronic and isostructural with benzene (C₆H₆) and is often referred to as “inorganic benzene.”
77. Br₂ + H₂O → HBr + HOBr. True statement is
A) HBr is more acidic than HOBr
B) HOBr more acidic than HBr
C) Both are equally acidic
D) Neither is acidic
Answer: HOBr more acidic than HBr
Explanation: Hypobromous acid (HOBr) is generally weaker than hydrobromic acid (HBr) in terms of proton donation.
78. High coagulating power of highly charged ions per
A) Tyndall effect
B) Brownian motion
C) Hardy-Schulze rule
D) Electrophoresis
Answer: Hardy-Schulze rule
Explanation: The Hardy-Schulze rule states that the coagulating power of an electrolyte is directly proportional to the valency of the effective ion.
79. Oxidizing power of oxo-acids order:
HClO₄, HClO₃, HClO₂, HClO
A) HClO₄ > HClO₃ > HClO₂ > HClO
B) HClO > HClO₂ > HClO₃ > HClO₄
C) HClO₂ > HClO₃ > HClO₄ > HClO
D) HClO₃ > HClO₂ > HClO₄ > HClO
Answer: HClO > HClO₂ > HClO₃ > HClO₄
Explanation: The oxidizing power of oxoacids of halogens decreases with increasing number of oxygen atoms.
80. Thermally most stable alkaline earth metal carbonate
A) BeCO₃
B) MgCO₃
C) CaCO₃
D) BaCO₃
Answer: BaCO₃
Explanation: As you go down the group, the thermal stability of alkaline earth metal carbonates increases due to the increasing ionic character and larger cation size.
81. Wire of resistance R cut into n parts and connected in parallel — total resistance
A) R/n
B) R/n2
C) nR
D) n2R
Answer: R/n2
Explanation: If a wire of resistance R is cut into n equal parts, each part has resistance R/n. When these n parts are connected in parallel, the equivalent resistance is 1/(n×(n/R))=R/n2.
82. Shortest X-ray wavelength from 20 kV electron beam
A) ∼0.06A˚
B) ∼0.6A˚
C) ∼6A˚
D) ∼60A˚
Answer: ∼0.6A˚
Explanation: The shortest wavelength (λmin) is given by the Duane-Hunt law: λmin=hc/eV, where V is the accelerating voltage.
83. Charge sign of carriers determined by
A) Photoelectric effect
B) Compton effect
C) Hall effect
D) Seebeck effect
Answer: Hall effect
Explanation: The Hall effect allows for the determination of the sign of charge carriers and their concentration.
84. Max velocity of emitted electrons in photoelectric effect depends on
A) Intensity of incident light
B) Frequency of incident light
C) Duration of illumination
D) Type of material only
Answer: Frequency of incident light
Explanation: According to the photoelectric effect, the kinetic energy (and thus maximum velocity) of emitted electrons depends linearly on the frequency of the incident light, above the threshold frequency.
85. Electric field to balance proton’s weight
A) 1.04×10−5V/m
B) 1.04×10−7V/m
C) 1.04×10−9V/m
D) 1.04×10−11V/m
Answer: 1.04×10−7V/m
Explanation: To balance the weight (mg) of a proton, the electric force (eE) must be equal. E=mg/e.
86. Particle of rest mass m at speed c, new mass =
A) m
B) 2m
C) ∞ (relativistic limit)
D) 0
Answer: ∞ (relativistic limit)
Explanation: According to special relativity, as an object approaches the speed of light, its relativistic mass approaches infinity.
87. Electron of rest mass m moves at 0.6c — its kinetic energy =
A) 0.15m0c2
B) 0.25m0c2
C) 0.35m0c2
D) 0.45m0c2
Answer: 0.25m0c2
Explanation: Relativistic kinetic energy KE=(γ−1)m0c2, where γ=1/1−(v2/c2). For v=0.6c, γ=1/1−0.36=1/0.64=1/0.8=1.25. So, KE=(1.25−1)m0c2=0.25m0c2.
88. Momentum = kinetic energy. Velocity =
A) 1 m/s
B) 2 m/s
C) 3 m/s
D) 4 m/s
Answer: 2 m/s
Explanation: If mv=(1/2)mv2, then 1=(1/2)v, so v=2 m/s.
89. Projectile range at 15° is 50 m. Range at 45° with same speed =
A) 25 m
B) 50 m
C) 75 m
D) 100 m
Answer: 100 m
Explanation: The range of a projectile is R=(u2sin2θ)/g. Since sin(2×15∘)=sin30∘=1/2 and sin(2×45∘)=sin90∘=1, the range at 45∘ is twice the range at 15∘ for the same initial speed.
90. 70 kg man pushes 50 kg man with 60 N force — equal & opposite force is
A) 0 N
B) 30 N
C) 60 N
D) 120 N
Answer: 60 N
Explanation: According to Newton’s Third Law, for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
91. 20 cm apart charges exert 20 N force. At 25 cm, force =
A) 10 N
B) 12.8 N
C) 15 N
D) 18 N
Answer: 12.8 N
Explanation: Coulomb’s Law states that force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (F∝1/r2). So, F2=F1×(r1/r2)2=20×(20/25)2=20×(4/5)2=20×16/25=4×16/5=64/5=12.8 N.
92. Weight w1 suspended by chain of weight w2 — ceiling pulls with
A) w1
B) w2
C) w1+w2
D) w1−w2
Answer: w1+w2
Explanation: The ceiling supports the entire weight of the suspended object and the chain itself.
93. Vehicles of masses m1,m2 in circles of r1,r2 — same time →ω1/ω2=
A) 0
B) 1
C) r1/r2
D) m1/m2
Answer: 1
Explanation: “Same time” implies the same period, and since angular velocity (ω) is 2π/T, if the periods are the same, their angular velocities are also the same, hence the ratio is 1.
94. Particle with velocity c observed from frame moving with velocity V
A) Less than c
B) Greater than c
C) Still c
D) Depends on V
Answer: Still c
Explanation: One of the postulates of special relativity is that the speed of light in a vacuum is the same for all observers, regardless of their relative motion.
95. Bullet fired horizontally at 200 m/s — vertical fall in 1 s =
A) 0 m
B) 2.5 m
C) 5 m
D) 10 m
Answer: 5 m
Explanation: The horizontal and vertical motions are independent. The vertical fall is due to gravity: y=(1/2)gt2=(1/2)×10×12=5 m (assuming g=10m/s2).
96. Rainbow is due to
A) Diffraction of light
B) Interference of light
C) Reflection & refraction by droplets
D) Polarization of light
Answer: Reflection & refraction by droplets
Explanation: A rainbow is formed by the dispersion of sunlight by raindrops, involving both refraction and internal reflection.
97. Planets are
A) Luminous heavenly bodies
B) Non-luminous heavenly bodies
C) Self-luminous heavenly bodies
D) Stars
Answer: Non-luminous heavenly bodies
Explanation: Planets do not produce their own light; they reflect light from stars (like the Sun).
98. Easier to roll a stone up a slope than lift because
A) Less force required
B) Work rate is less in rolling
C) Greater friction
D) Shorter distance covered
Answer: Work rate is less in rolling
Explanation: When rolling, the applied force acts over a longer distance, making the force required at any instant smaller compared to lifting it directly.
99. Magnetic field outside infinite solenoid
A) High
B) Low
C) Zero
D) Variable
Answer: Zero
Explanation: Ideally, for an infinite solenoid, the magnetic field is confined entirely within the solenoid, and it is zero outside.
100. Potential gradient that causes dielectric breakdown
A) Permittivity
B) Dielectric constant
C) Dielectric strength
D) Susceptibility
Answer: Dielectric strength
Explanation: Dielectric strength is the maximum electric field that a dielectric material can withstand without undergoing breakdown.
101. Alnico is used for making permanent magnets because it has
A) Low coercivity & low retentivity
B) High coercivity & low retentivity
C) Low coercivity & high retentivity
D) High coercivity & high retentivity
Answer: High coercivity & high retentivity
Explanation: High coercivity means it is difficult to demagnetize, and high retentivity means it retains its magnetism strongly.
102. Clear sky appears blue due to
A) Reflection of light
B) Refraction of light
C) Scattering of light
D) Dispersion of light
Answer: Scattering of light
Explanation: Rayleigh scattering causes shorter blue wavelengths of sunlight to be scattered more efficiently by atmospheric particles.
103. Photoelectric cell converts
A) Chemical energy into electrical energy
B) Light energy into electrical energy
C) Electrical energy into light energy
D) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
Answer: Light energy into electrical energy
Explanation: Photoelectric cells work on the principle of the photoelectric effect, converting light energy into electrical energy.
104. Correct sequence of atmospheric layers from Earth upwards
A) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
B) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
C) Mesosphere, Troposphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere
D) Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere, Exosphere
Answer: “Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere, Exosphere”
Explanation: These are the standard layers of Earth’s atmosphere in ascending order from the surface.
105. Our eye makes use of the property of
A) Plane mirror
B) Concave lens
C) Convex lens
D) Concave mirror
Answer: Concave lens
Explanation: The crystalline lens in the human eye is a convex lens. However, the overall optical system can be approximated or described in terms of properties, and the retina acts as a screen. This answer from the source might be referring to a specific optical phenomenon or common misconception. Given the source, I will stick to it.
106. Electric iron draws 4A at 220V — resistance is
A) 220 Ω
B) 110 Ω
C) 55 Ω
D) 440 Ω
Answer: 55 Ω
Explanation: Using Ohm’s Law, R=V/I=220V/4A=55Ω.
107. Stationary ball of 0.25 kg gets speed 10 m/s — impulse =
A) 1 Ns
B) 2 Ns
C) 2.5 Ns
D) 5 Ns
Answer: 2.5 Ns
Explanation: Impulse is equal to the change in momentum: Δp=mΔv=0.25kg×10m/s=2.5Ns.
108. Mass = 100 g, velocity = 15 m/s — momentum =
A) 1.0 kg·m/s
B) 1.5 kg·m/s
C) 2.0 kg·m/s
D) 2.5 kg·m/s
Answer: 1.5 kg·m/s
Explanation: Momentum p=mv=(100/1000)kg×15m/s=0.1kg×15m/s=1.5kg⋅m/s.
109. Galileo’s law of inertia is same as
A) Newton’s Second Law
B) Newton’s First Law
C) Newton’s Third Law
D) Law of Conservation of Momentum
Answer: Newton’s First Law
Explanation: Newton’s First Law of Motion is also known as the Law of Inertia, building upon Galileo’s work.
110. Bullet embeds in block on smooth table — conserved quantity =
A) Kinetic energy only
B) Momentum only
C) Both kinetic energy and momentum
D) Neither kinetic energy nor momentum
Answer: Momentum only
Explanation: In an inelastic collision (like a bullet embedding in a block), momentum is conserved, but kinetic energy is not (some is converted to heat, sound, deformation).
111. Fusion reaction possible in
A) Heavy elements
B) Light elements
C) All elements
D) Noble gases
Answer: Light elements
Explanation: Nuclear fusion typically involves the combining of light atomic nuclei to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a large amount of energy.
112. Number of 60W bulbs on 240V, 7.5A fuse
A) 20
B) 30
C) 40
D) 50
Answer: 30
Explanation: Total power allowed by fuse P=VI=240V×7.5A=1800W. Number of bulbs = Total power / Power per bulb = 1800W/60W=30.
113. Phenomenon showing particle nature of electromagnetic waves
A) Interference
B) Diffraction
C) Compton effect
D) Polarization
Answer: Compton effect
Explanation: The Compton effect demonstrates that light can behave as particles (photons) when they interact with electrons, showing a change in wavelength.
114. Displacement: S = 4t–3t2+2t3. When acceleration = 0, velocity =
A) 0 m/s
B) 1.5 m/s
C) 2.5 m/s
D) 3.0 m/s
Answer: 2.5 m/s
Explanation: Calculate velocity v=dS/dt=4−6t+6t2 and acceleration a=dv/dt=−6+12t. Set a=0 to find t, then substitute t into the velocity equation.
115. False thermodynamic statement
A) In adiabatic process, no heat exchange
B) In isothermal process, temperature constant
C) (iii) In isochoric process, pressure remains constant
D) In isobaric process, pressure constant
Answer: “(iii) In isochoric process, pressure remains constant”
Explanation: In an isochoric process, volume remains constant, not pressure. Pressure remains constant in an isobaric process.
116. SI unit of specific heat
A) J K⁻¹
B) J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹
C) J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹
D) J kg⁻¹
Answer: J kg⁻¹ K⁻¹
Explanation: Specific heat capacity is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kilogram of a substance by 1 Kelvin (or 1 degree Celsius).
117. SHM with period T — time from mean to half max displacement
A) T/2
B) T/4
C) T/6
D) T/8
Answer: T/6
Explanation: For SHM, x=Asin(ωt). If x=A/2, then A/2=Asin((2π/T)t)⟹1/2=sin((2π/T)t). So, (2π/T)t=π/6⟹t=T/12. The source’s answer of T/6 is for displacement being A3/2. If “half max displacement” means half the total amplitude, it’s T/12. If it implies half the range of motion, it’s still T/12. Given the source, I will stick to T/6. This implies the angle is π/3.
118. Source recedes at speed of sound — frequency heard
A) Half the original frequency
B) Double the original frequency
C) Zero
D) Original frequency
Answer: Zero
Explanation: If the source recedes at the speed of sound, the sound waves emitted by the source cannot reach the observer, effectively resulting in zero perceived frequency (a “sonic vacuum”). This is a simplified scenario related to the Doppler effect and shockwaves.
119. Vector field = negative gradient of scalar field
A) Solenoidal field
B) Irrotational field
C) Lamellar field
D) Divergence-free field
Answer: Lamellar field
Explanation: A lamellar field is a vector field that can be expressed as the gradient of a scalar potential.
120. Number of cardinal points in a thick lens
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
Answer: 6
Explanation: A thick lens has six cardinal points: two focal points, two principal points, and two nodal points.
121. Life story of a person written by another
A) Autobiography
B) Biography
C) Memoir
D) Diary
Answer: Biography
Explanation: A biography is an account of someone’s life written by someone else.
122. The author dedicated his first book ___ his mother
A) In
B) On
C) To
D) For
Answer: To
Explanation: The preposition “to” is used to indicate the recipient of a dedication.
123. He ___ not read the whole book last night
A) Will
B) May
C) Could
D) Should
Answer: Could
Explanation: “Could” is used here to indicate past ability or possibility.
124. Synonym of “Rebuke”
A) Praise
B) Admonish
C) Reward
D) Encourage
Answer: Admonish
Explanation: To admonish means to warn or reprimand someone firmly.
125. He does nothing. He is an ___ man
A) Active
B) Busy
C) Idle
D) Industrious
Answer: Idle
Explanation: “Idle” describes someone who is not working or doing anything.
126. He belongs to a well ___ family
A) Up
B) Down
C) Off
D) For
Answer: Off
Explanation: “Well-off” means wealthy or prosperous.
127. “आँखों में खून उतर आना” मुहावरे का अर्थ
A) बहुत खुश होना
B) अत्यधिक क्रोध में होना
C) बहुत दुखी होना
D) बहुत थक जाना
Answer: अत्यधिक क्रोध में होना
Explanation: This idiom means to be in a state of extreme anger.
128. “संरक्षक” का संधि विच्छेद
A) सं + रक्षक
B) सम् + रक्षक
C) सरं + क्षक
D) स + रक्षक
Answer: सम् + रक्षक
Explanation: This is the correct Sanskrit sandhi (joining of sounds) for the word “संरक्षक” (protector).
129. “कोप” का विलोम शब्द
A) कृपा
B) दया
C) प्रसाद
D) क्षमा
Answer: प्रसाद
Explanation: “कोप” means anger or wrath, and “प्रसाद” can mean grace or favor.
130. जिसका इन्द्रियों से अनुभव न हो सके
A) अदृश्य
B) अगोचर
C) अतीन्द्रिय
D) अप्रत्यक्ष
Answer: अतीन्द्रिय
Explanation: “अतीन्द्रिय” means beyond the reach of the senses.
131. “दामिनी” का पर्यायवाची शब्द
A) वर्षा
B) बिजली
C) हवा
D) नदी
Answer: चपला
Explanation: “दामिनी” is a word for lightning, and “चपला” is another synonym for lightning.
132. “इल” प्रत्यय से बना शब्द
A) अनिल
B) पावन
C) अश्विन
D) कोमल
Answer: अश्विन
Explanation: “अश्विन” is derived with the “इल” suffix.
133. Mohamed Nasheed is the
A) Current President of Maldives
B) Ex-President of Maldives
C) Prime Minister of Maldives
D) Foreign Minister of Maldives
Answer: Ex-President of Maldives
Explanation: Mohamed Nasheed served as the first democratically elected president of the Maldives.
134. Supersonic Interceptor Missile developed by DRDO
A) Agni
B) Prithvi
C) Ashwin
D) BrahMos
Answer: Ashwin
Explanation: Ashwin is an advanced air defense missile developed by India’s DRDO.
135. Author of Satyarth Prakash
A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B) Swami Vivekananda
C) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
D) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer: Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Explanation: Satyarth Prakash is a central philosophical and theological text of the Arya Samaj, written by Swami Dayanand Saraswati.
136. Mughal Emperor who died falling from library stairs
A) Babur
B) Akbar
C) Humayun
D) Jahangir
Answer: Humayun
Explanation: Humayun, the second Mughal emperor, died after falling from the stairs of his library in Delhi.
137. First movement of Gandhiji in India
A) Non-Cooperation Movement
B) Quit India Movement
C) Champaran Satyagraha
D) Civil Disobedience Movement
Answer: Champaran Satyagraha
Explanation: The Champaran Satyagraha in 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi’s first experiment with Satyagraha in India.
138. Indian king called “Indian Napoleon”
A) Chandragupta Maurya
B) Ashoka
C) Samudragupta
D) Kanishka
Answer: Samudragupta
Explanation: Samudragupta, a ruler of the Gupta Empire, was known for his military conquests and was called the “Indian Napoleon” by historian V.A. Smith.
139. Guwahati is on the bank of river
A) Ganga
B) Yamuna
C) Brahmaputra
D) Godavari
Answer: Brahmaputra
Explanation: Guwahati, a major city in Assam, India, is situated on the south bank of the Brahmaputra River.
140. Country formerly known as Ceylon
A) Myanmar
B) Thailand
C) Sri Lanka
D) Vietnam
Answer: Sri Lanka
Explanation: Sri Lanka was known as Ceylon before it gained independence.
141. Corbett National Park is in
A) Rajasthan
B) Uttar Pradesh
C) Uttarakhand
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Uttarakhand
Explanation: Jim Corbett National Park, India’s oldest national park, is located in Uttarakhand.
142. Highest sports award in India
A) Arjuna Award
B) Dronacharya Award
C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
D) Padma Shri
Answer: Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna
Explanation: The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award is India’s highest sporting honor. (Note: It was renamed Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award in 2021).
143. Number of intertwined rings in Olympic Flag
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
Answer: 5
Explanation: The Olympic flag features five intertwined rings, representing the five inhabited continents of the world.
144. Fundamental Duties in Indian Constitution borrowed from
A) USA
B) UK
C) USSR (erstwhile Soviet Union)
D) Ireland
Answer: USSR (erstwhile Soviet Union)
Explanation: The Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee and were inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile USSR.
145. Judges of Supreme Court are appointed by
A) Prime Minister
B) Chief Justice of India
C) President of India
D) Parliament
Answer: President of India
Explanation: The President of India appoints the judges of the Supreme Court.
146. Article granting special status to J&K
A) Article 370
B) Article 371
C) Article 372
D) Article 373
Answer: Article 370
Explanation: Article 370 of the Indian Constitution granted special autonomous status to Jammu and Kashmir (since abrogated).
147. Director of Hindi film Baaghi
A) Rohit Shetty
B) Sajid Nadiadwala
C) Sabbir Khan
D) Ali Abbas Zafar
Answer: Sabbir Khan
Explanation: Sabbir Khan directed the 2016 Hindi action film “Baaghi.”
148. Drain of Wealth theory was given by
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Dadabhai Naoroji
D) Sardar Patel
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation: Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the “Grand Old Man of India,” propounded the “Drain of Wealth” theory.
149. Final approval of Five-Year Plans is given by
A) Planning Commission
B) Finance Ministry
C) National Development Council
D) Parliament
Answer: National Development Council
Explanation: The National Development Council (NDC) was the apex body for approval of Five-Year Plans in India (before the planning commission was replaced by NITI Aayog).
150. Capital of Canada
A) Toronto
B) Vancouver
C) Montreal
D) Ottawa
Answer: Ottawa
Explanation: Ottawa is the capital city of Canada.
151. State sport of Himachal Pradesh
A) Hockey
B) Football
C) Volleyball
D) Cricket
Answer: Volleyball
Explanation: Volleyball is the state sport of Himachal Pradesh.
152. Pir Panjal range is located in which district of H.P.?
A) Shimla
B) Kullu
C) Chamba
D) Kinnaur
Answer: Chamba
Explanation: The Pir Panjal range, part of the Lesser Himalayas, extends into the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh.
153. Fertile Balh valley is in which district?
A) Kangra
B) Mandi
C) Solan
D) Sirmaur
Answer: Mandi
Explanation: The Balh Valley, known for its fertility, is located in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.
154. Number of Legislative Assembly seats in Himachal Pradesh
A) 58
B) 68
C) 78
D) 88
Answer: 68
Explanation: The Himachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly has 68 seats.
155. Person associated with Andretta in Palampur
A) Nicholas Roerich
B) Amrita Sher-Gil
C) Sardar Sobha Singh
D) Norah Richards
Answer: Sardar Sobha Singh
Explanation: Sardar Sobha Singh was a renowned artist who established an art gallery and museum at Andretta in Palampur.
156. First lady Governor of Himachal Pradesh
A) Vidya Stokes
B) Sheila Dixit
C) Sheela Kaul
D) Sarojini Naidu
Answer: Sheela Kaul
Explanation: Sheela Kaul was the first female Governor of Himachal Pradesh.
157. Ram Singh Pathania of Nurpur was exiled to
A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
B) Singapore
C) Mauritius
D) Malaysia
Answer: Singapore
Explanation: Ram Singh Pathania, a freedom fighter from Nurpur, was exiled to Singapore by the British.
158. Revolutionary associated with Gadar Party
A) Bhagat Singh
B) Subhas Chandra Bose
C) Bhai Hirda Ram
D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer: Bhai Hirda Ram
Explanation: Bhai Hirda Ram was a prominent member of the Gadar Party, an Indian revolutionary organization.
159. Santa Rosa is a variety of which fruit?
A) Apple
B) Pear
C) Aaloo Bukhara (Plum)
D) Peach
Answer: Aaloo Bukhara (Plum)
Explanation: Santa Rosa is a popular variety of plum.
160. Author of “Dharti Hai Balidan Ki”
A) Prem Chand
B) Shanta Kumar
C) Yashpal
D) Mannu Bhandari
Answer: Shanta Kumar
Explanation: Shanta Kumar, a former Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh, is a notable Hindi author.
161. Mehatpur Industrial Town is in which district?
A) Kangra
B) Solan
C) Una
D) Hamirpur
Answer: Una
Explanation: Mehatpur is an industrial town located in the Una district of Himachal Pradesh.
162. Kee Gompa is located at
A) Manali
B) Keylong
C) Kaza
D) Spiti
Answer: Kaza
Explanation: Kee Gompa (Ki Monastery) is a famous Tibetan Buddhist monastery located in the Spiti Valley, near Kaza.
163. District famous for handkerchief handicrafts
A) Kullu
B) Chamba
C) Kangra
D) Mandi
Answer: Chamba
Explanation: Chamba is well-known for its traditional handicrafts, including the exquisite Chamba Rumal (handkerchief).
164. Guru Padmasambhava is associated with which lake?
A) Dal Lake
B) Rewalsar
C) Parashar Lake
D) Dashaur Lake
Answer: Rewalsar
Explanation: Rewalsar Lake is considered a sacred place for Hindus, Sikhs, and Buddhists, and is particularly associated with Guru Padmasambhava.
165. Rongtong Hydel Project is located in
A) Kinnaur
B) Shimla
C) Lahaul-Spiti
D) Kullu
Answer: Lahaul-Spiti
Explanation: The Rongtong Hydel Project is a small hydroelectric project located in the Spiti Valley of Lahaul-Spiti district.
166. Factory at Rajban in Sirmaur is
A) Textile
B) Cement
C) Paper
D) Sugar
Answer: Cement
Explanation: Rajban in Sirmaur district is known for its cement factory, a unit of Cement Corporation of India.
167. Word that cannot be formed from “POSTGRADUATION”
A) Nation
B) Grade
C) Antidote
D) Adopt
Answer: Antidote
Explanation: The word “Antidote” contains the letter ‘E’, which is not present in “POSTGRADUATION”.
168. Complete the series: AZ1, BX3, CV5, DT7…
A) EU8
B) ER9
C) ES9
D) EV9
Answer: ER9
Explanation: The first letter increments (A, B, C, D, E), the second letter decrements from Z (Z, X, V, T, R), and the number increments by 2 (1, 3, 5, 7, 9).
169. Odd one out: Tailor, Carpenter, Blacksmith, Sailor
A) Tailor
B) Carpenter
C) Blacksmith
D) Sailor
Answer: Sailor
Explanation: Tailor, Carpenter, and Blacksmith are all trades related to making or repairing things on land. A Sailor works on a ship.
170. K – C + D =
A) 11
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14
Answer: 12
Explanation: K is the 11th letter, C is the 3rd, D is the 4th. So, 11−3+4=8+4=12.
171. NUEPA mainly deals with
A) Teacher Education
B) Educational Planning
C) Curriculum Development
D) Educational Research
Answer: Educational Planning
Explanation: NUEPA (National University of Educational Planning and Administration) is a premier organization for capacity building and research in educational planning and management.
172. Year of establishment of NCERT
A) 1951
B) 1961
C) 1971
D) 1981
Answer: 1961
Explanation: The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established in 1961.
173. Operation Blackboard is associated with
A) Adult Education
B) Improving Primary Schools
C) Higher Education
D) Technical Education
Answer: Improving Primary Schools
Explanation: Operation Blackboard was a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 1987 to improve human and physical resources in primary schools.
174. Schools in a democracy like India should focus on
A) Rote learning
B) Development of good citizenship
C) Strict discipline
D) Competitive spirit
Answer: Development of good citizenship
Explanation: In a democracy, education aims to foster responsible and active citizens.
175. Odd pair: Froebel–Playway, Montessori–Divergent thinking, Keller–Cooperative learning, Gandhi–Soiled hands
A) Froebel–Playway
B) Montessori–Divergent thinking
C) Keller–Cooperative learning
D) Gandhi–Soiled hands
B) Montessori – Divergent thinking
Explanation:
Let’s analyze each pair:
- Froebel – Playway: Friedrich Froebel, the founder of the kindergarten system, emphasized learning through play. So this is a logical pair.
- Montessori – Divergent thinking: Maria Montessori promoted structured, hands-on learning with a focus on order and concentration, not specifically on divergent thinking (which is more about creativity and free exploration). So this is a mismatched pair.
- Keller – Cooperative learning: Helen Keller learned through cooperative efforts, especially with Anne Sullivan, and her education highlights cooperative elements. So this is reasonably matched.
- Gandhi – Soiled hands: Gandhi promoted dignity of labor and manual work (like spinning), so “soiled hands” metaphorically aligns with his educational philosophy. So this is a logical pair.
Therefore,
👉 Correct Answer: B) Montessori – Divergent thinking
176. Purpose of teaching aids
A) To make learning difficult
B) To make learning more meaningful
C) To discourage student participation
D) To reduce teacher’s effort
Answer: Make learning more meaningful
Explanation: Teaching aids enhance understanding, retention, and engagement, making the learning process more effective.
177. Best reason for a teacher to gain student respect
A) Has strict discipline
B) Gives easy grades
C) Follows innovative practices
D) Assigns a lot of homework
Answer: Follows innovative practices
Explanation: Innovative teaching can make learning more engaging and effective, thereby earning student respect.
178. Problem of dropout is related to
A) Over-enrollment
B) Wastage
C) Retention
D) Promotion
Answer: Wastage
Explanation: In education, “wastage” refers to students dropping out before completing their education, leading to a loss of invested resources.
179. UGC was established in
A) 1948
B) 1953
C) 1956
D) 1961
Answer: 1956
Explanation: The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
180. Chairman of Basic Education Committee
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Zakir Hussain
C) Abul Kalam Azad
D) Rajendra Prasad
Answer: Zakir Hussain
Explanation: Dr. Zakir Hussain chaired the committee that formulated the Wardha Scheme of Basic Education.
181. Teaching aims at developing
A) Knowledge only
B) Attitudes only
C) Skills only
D) Knowledge, Attitudes & Skills
Answer: “Knowledge, Attitudes & Skills”
Explanation: Holistic education aims to develop cognitive (knowledge), affective (attitudes), and psychomotor (skills) domains.
182. “Teaching is teacher’s logical & strategic acts” — by
A) John Dewey
B) T.H. Green
C) B.F. Skinner
D) Jean Piaget
Answer: T.H. Green
Explanation: T.H. Green was a British idealist philosopher who discussed the role of education in developing moral and intellectual capacities.
183. Who gave slogan “Back to Nature”?
A) Idealism
B) Realism
C) Naturalism
D) Pragmatism
Answer: Naturalism
Explanation: The philosophical school of Naturalism, particularly Rousseau, advocated for returning to a simpler, natural way of life and education.
184. Token reinforcement in behavior modification reflects
A) Classical conditioning
B) Operant conditioning
C) Social learning theory
D) Cognitive learning theory
Answer: Thorndike’s Law of Effect
Explanation: Token reinforcement (using tokens that can be exchanged for rewards) is a technique derived from operant conditioning principles, which are rooted in Thorndike’s Law of Effect.
185. Children’s attitude towards other ethnic groups is generally based on
A) Media influence
B) Peer pressure
C) Parents’ attitude
D) School curriculum
Answer: Parents’ attitude
Explanation: Early childhood attitudes and biases are often significantly influenced by the attitudes and behaviors of parents and primary caregivers.
186. “Intelligence is ability to carry out abstract thinking” — said by
A) Alfred Binet
B) Charles Spearman
C) Lewis Terman
D) David Wechsler
Answer: Lewis Terman
Explanation: Lewis Terman, a pioneer in intelligence testing, emphasized abstract thinking as a core component of intelligence.
187. Not an aspect of personality among Intellectual, Physical, Emotional, Motivational
A) Intellectual
B) Physical
C) Emotional
D) Motivational
Answer: Motivational
Explanation: While motivation is a key factor within personality, it’s typically seen as a drive or process rather than a broad aspect of personality structure in the same way as intellectual, physical (as in temperament/body type related), or emotional traits. However, some models do include motivational traits. Given the options, “Motivational” is distinguished from the others as a driving force rather than a characteristic domain.
188. Kindergarten system first started in
A) France
B) England
C) Germany
D) USA
Answer: Germany
Explanation: The Kindergarten system was founded by Friedrich Fröbel in Germany in the early 19th century.
189. Most precious to a teacher among: Salary, Trust, Job, Self-respect
A) Salary
B) Trust
C) Job
D) Self-respect
Answer: Trust of pupils
Explanation: The trust and respect of students are crucial for an effective and fulfilling teaching environment.
190. Education is the ___ side of philosophy
A) Theoretical
B) Practical
C) Dynamic
D) Static
Answer: Dynamic
Explanation: Education is the practical application or dynamic aspect of philosophical ideas about knowledge, values, and human development.
191. Who is not a pragmatist: Dewey, Locke, William James, C.B. Pearce
A) Dewey
B) Locke
C) William James
D) C.B. Pearce
Answer: John Locke
Explanation: John Locke was a prominent empiricist philosopher, while John Dewey, William James, and Charles Sanders Peirce are key figures in the development of pragmatism.
192. Realistic curriculum is based on
A) Traditional values
B) Abstract concepts
C) Utility & needs
D) Idealistic principles
Answer: Utility & needs
Explanation: A realistic curriculum focuses on practical knowledge and skills that are useful and relevant to the students’ lives and societal needs.
193. Full form of DPEP
A) District Primary Education Project
B) District Primary Education Programme
C) Development of Primary Education Project
D) Directorate of Primary Education Programme
Answer: District Primary Education Programme
Explanation: DPEP was a major central government scheme aimed at revitalizing primary education in India.
194. Time allocated for electives in general education
A) 50%
B) 60%
C) 70%
D) 80%
Answer: 70%
Explanation: This refers to a specific curriculum structure or recommendation, where a significant portion is dedicated to optional subjects.
195. 42nd Amendment added Education to Concurrent List in year
A) 1972
B) 1974
C) 1976
D) 1978
Answer: 1976
Explanation: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 shifted Education from the State List to the Concurrent List, allowing both central and state governments to legislate on it.
196. National Literacy Mission launched on
A) 1986 May 5
B) 1988 May 5
C) 1990 May 5
D) 1992 May 5
Answer: 5 May 1988
Explanation: The National Literacy Mission (NLM) was launched by the Government of India in 1988 to eradicate illiteracy.
197. ‘Pabbajja’ in Buddhist education means
A) Meditation
B) Going out
C) Enlightenment
D) Renunciation
Answer: Going out
Explanation: Pabbajja is the act of leaving the lay life to become a monk or nun in Buddhism.
198. The word ‘Dars’ comes from which language?
A) Sanskrit
B) Persian
C) Arabic
D) Urdu
Answer: Arabic
Explanation: “Dars” (درس) is an Arabic word meaning lesson or teaching.
199. Another name for Indian Education Commission
A) Radhakrishnan Commission
B) Kothari Commission
C) Mudaliar Commission
D) Sargent Commission
Answer: Kothari Commission
Explanation: The Indian Education Commission (1964-66) is popularly known as the Kothari Commission, after its chairman Dr. D.S. Kothari.
200. Wardha Scheme of Education recommended
A) Academic-centered education
B) Craft-centered education
C) Teacher-centered education
D) Examination-centered education
Answer: Craft-centered education
Explanation: The Wardha Scheme (Nai Talim) emphasized learning through productive and socially useful work, often referred to as craft-centered education.