HPAS Pre 2025 GS Held On:29.06.2025 -

1. Where was the 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife was held?

(A) Gir National Park

(B) Kanha National Park

(D) Corbett National Park

Answer: (A) Gir National Park

Explanation: The 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife, chaired by the Prime Minister, was held at Gir National Park, Gujarat on March 3, 2025.

2. Which of the following is not a constituent body of the National Statistics Office?

(A) Central Statistical Office

(B) Data Informatics and Innovation Division

(D) National Sample Survey Office

Answer: (C) Indian Statistical Institute

Explanation: The National Statistical Office (NSO) was formed by merging the Central Statistical Office (CSO) and the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO); the Indian Statistical Institute is a separate autonomous institution.

3. Who said these words on the death of Mahatma Gandhi – “We have learned our lesson at a very high price. Is there anyone among us who would refuse to carry on Gandhi’s mission after his death. Hindustanis have to unite and fight against that terrible poison of communalism, which has taken away from us the greatest man of our times”.

(A) J.L. Nehru

(B) Vallabhbhai Patel

(D) Sarojini Naidu

Answer: (B) Vallabhbhai Patel

Explanation: Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel made this statement in a heartfelt broadcast to the nation after the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi.

4. Marble Falls pertain to:

(A) The Narmada system

(B) The Tapi system

(D) The Kaveri system

Answer: (A) The Narmada system

Explanation: The famous Marble Falls, also known as the Dhuandhar Falls, are located on the Narmada River in Bhedaghat, near Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.

5. Baghelkhand region is located to the east of:

(A) The Malwa Plateau

(B) The Maikal Range

(D) The Telangana Plateau

Answer: (B) The Maikal Range

Explanation: In the geography of Central India, the Maikal Range forms the western boundary of the Baghelkhand Plateau.

6. Who decides the disqualification of members of State Legislative Assembly, for matters other than those in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?

(A) Governor of the State

(B) State High Court

(D) State Election Commission

Answer: (A) Governor of the State

Explanation: As per Article 192 of the Constitution, the Governor is the final authority to decide on an MLA’s disqualification (except for defection), based on the opinion of the Election Commission.

7. What is the objective of ‘Cut Motion’ in the Parliament?

(A) To restrict day-to-day financial expenditure of Government

(B) To restrict grants of the Government

(D) To restrict grants from consolidated fund of India

Answer: (C) To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in budget proposals

Explanation: A cut motion is a parliamentary device used by members to propose a reduction in the specific demands for grants during the discussion of the budget.

8. Which of the following best explains the “Twin Balance Sheet” problem in the Indian economy?

(A) High fiscal deficit and current account deficit

(B) High NPAs and low capital buffer in NBFCs

(D) Bad loans in agriculture and MSME sector

Answer: (C) Stressed balance sheets of banks and over-leveraged corporates

Explanation: The Twin Balance Sheet problem refers to the stressed financials of both public sector banks (high NPAs) and major corporations (high debt).

9. Which of the following can cause “Stagflation”?

(A) Rapid increase in aggregate demand

(B) Sudden supply shock like rise in oil prices

(D) Appreciation of the domestic currency

Answer: (B) Sudden supply shock like rise in oil prices

Explanation: Stagflation (stagnant growth + high inflation) is often caused by a negative supply shock, which increases production costs and reduces economic output.

10. Which of the following Indian States emerged number one in NITI Aayog’s Fiscal Health Index 2025?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(D) Odisha

Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu

Explanation: While NITI Aayog does not release a “Fiscal Health Index,” it does publish a “Health Index” where Tamil Nadu is consistently ranked as one of the top-performing large states.

11. Which of the following best explains “Operation Twist” by RBI?

(A) It increases CRR while decreasing SLR

(B) It simultaneously buys long-term and sells short-term government securities

(D) It involves swapping forex reserves for rupee bonds

Answer: (B) It simultaneously buys long-term and sells short-term government securities

12. Which of the following cities of India is a wetland accredited city under the Ramsar Convention?

(A) Indore

(B) Bhopal

(D) Imphal

Answer: (A) Indore

Explanation: In 2024, Indore and Bhopal in Madhya Pradesh (along with Udaipur in Rajasthan) became the first three Indian cities to be accredited as Wetland Cities by the Ramsar Convention.

13. When was the National Centre for Disaster Management established in India?

(A) 2005

(B) 1975

(D) 1985

Explanation: The National Centre for Disaster Management (NCDM) was established in 1995; it was later reconstituted as the National Institute of Disaster Management (NIDM) in 2005.

14. A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of:

(A) Fertilisation

(B) Metamorphosis

(D) Budding

Answer: (B) Metamorphosis

Explanation: Metamorphosis is the biological process of transformation from an immature larval stage (like a tadpole) to an adult stage (a frog).

Explanation: Operation Twist is a monetary policy tool where the RBI buys long-term bonds and sells short-term bonds to lower long-term interest rates.

15. What was the theme of the 8th Indian Ocean Conference held at Muscat, Oman?

(A) Maritime security and counterterrorism

(B) Maritime security threats

(D) Voyage to New Horizons of maritime partnership

Answer: This question appears to be based on incorrect information. As of now, the 8th Indian Ocean Conference has not taken place in Muscat, Oman. The most recent conference was the 7th Indian Ocean Conference, held in Perth, Australia, in February 2024, with the theme “Towards a Stable and Sustainable Indian Ocean.”

16. Cocos plate is located between:

(A) Central America and Pacific plate

(B) Asiatic and Pacific plate

(D) Phillippine and Indian plate

Answer: (A) Central America and Pacific plate

Explanation: The Cocos Plate is an oceanic tectonic plate located in the Pacific Ocean off the western coast of Central America.

17. Who prepared the “Report of the Land Revenue settlement of the Kangra District, printed in 1874”?

(A) J.B. Lyall

(B) G.C. Barnes

(D) Victor Jacqimo

Answer: (A) J.B. Lyall

Explanation: While G.C. Barnes conducted the first settlement, it was J.B. Lyall’s revised “Report of the land revenue settlement of the Kangra district” that was printed in 1874.

18. Who among the following was not the Vice-President of the Himalayan Hill States Sub-regional Council?

(A) Tej Singh Nidadhak

(B) Leela Das Verma

(D) Shivanand Ramaul

Answer: (A) Tej Singh Nidadhak

Explanation: Shivanand Ramaul (General Secretary), Leela Das Verma, and Sadaram Chandel held key positions, whereas Tej Singh Nidadhak was not a top office-bearer of the council.

19. From which constituency Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar was elected to represent in (1952-56) Himachal Assembly?

(A) Rajgarh

(B) Pachhad

(D) Nahan

Answer: (B) Pachhad

Explanation: Dr. Y. S. Parmar, the first Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh, was elected from the Pachhad constituency in the 1952 assembly elections.

20. Mountain Soil Zone in Himachal Pradesh is found between:

(A) 3000-6000 m

(B) 1500-3000 m

(D) 900-1000 m

Answer: (A) 3000-6000 m

Explanation: The soils of Himachal Pradesh are classified into zones by altitude, and the Mountain Soil zone is found above 3000 meters.

21. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Spices Board of India’s headquarters is located at Kochi.

Statement II: India produces 75 out of 109 spice varieties listed by the International Organisation for Standardization.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation: The Spices Board of India is headquartered in Kochi, Kerala, and official sources confirm that India grows 75 of the 109 spice varieties listed by the ISO.

22. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: India is the second largest arms importer after Ukraine during 2020-24, as per the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute report.

Statement II: India has developed two defence industrial corridors in Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu to boost the defence manufacturing.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Explanation: According to the latest SIPRI report, India was the world’s largest arms importer (not second) for 2020-24, and the two defence industrial corridors in UP and Tamil Nadu have been established.

23. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The revolt of 1857 in Lucknow started on 30th May, 1857.

Statement II: The revolt of 1857 in Kanpur started on 28th June, 1857.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct1

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect2

(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct4

Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation: The revolt in Lucknow did start on May 30, 1857, but the revolt in Kanpur began earlier, around June 4-5, 1857.

Question 24.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mukund Rao Patil started publishing the mouthpiece of Satyashodak Samaj, ‘Dinmitra’ from 1910.

Statement II: Natal Indian Congress was established in 1896. At that time Mahatma Gandhi was made its President.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation: Both statements are incorrect. Mukund Rao Patil started publishing ‘Dinbandhu’, not ‘Dinmitra’, and Natal Indian Congress was established in 1894, not 1896, with Gandhi as its founder, not necessarily President at that exact time.

Question 25.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was not associated with “Independent Labour Party” in India.

Statement II: Kanshi Ram was associated with the “Scheduled Castes Federation” in India.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect as Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded the Independent Labour Party. Statement II is incorrect as Kanshi Ram was associated with the Bahujan Samaj Party, while the Scheduled Castes Federation was founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

Question 26.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the Interim Government of 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru was Prime Minister and Head of the Executive Council of Viceroy.

Statement II: Rajni Kothari observed that “It is not politics that gets caste ridden, it is caste that gets politicised”.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect as Nehru was the Vice-President of the Executive Council, not the Prime Minister or the Head. Statement II is a famous observation by Rajni Kothari and is correct.

Question 27.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme covers 14 sectors, with a total outlay of Rs. 1.97 lakh crore.

Statement II: The PLI scheme has achieved 100% of its targeted investment in the electronics sector by FY 2024-25.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation: Statement I is correct, as the PLI scheme covers 14 sectors with a total outlay of Rs. 1.97 lakh crore, while Statement II is incorrect since the target may not have been fully achieved by the specified time.

Question 28.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) aims to raise Rs. 6 lakh crore by FY 2024-25.

Statement II: The NMP includes monetisation of assets in the education sector.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect as the NMP does not include assets in the education sector.

29. Read the following statements:

Statement I: Apart from issuing currency notes, RBI regulates all commercial banks in India.

Statement II: Regulating NBFCs are not under the purview of RBI.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation: The RBI’s functions include regulating commercial banks, and it is also the primary regulator for Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India.

Question 30.

Read the following statements:

Statement I: Share of agriculture in total GSDP of Himachal Pradesh has declined from about 75 percent in 1950-51 to little above 20 percent in 2023-24.

Statement II: As per economic survey 2024-25 of the state, however, in terms of employment still 54 percent of the state population is engaged in primary sector.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation: Both statements are correct. Statement I describes the decline in the share of agriculture in GSDP, and Statement II mentions the continued high employment in the primary sector as per the Economic Survey 2024-25.

Question 31.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: India’s first wolf sanctuary is located at Bankapur in Karnataka.

Statement II: The Indian grey wolf is classified as endangered species by the IUCN.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation: India’s first wolf sanctuary is at Rehakuri in Maharashtra, not Bankapur, and the Indian grey wolf is classified as ‘Least Concern’ by the IUCN, not endangered.

Question 32.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The withdrawal of USA from Paris Agreement in 2025 will strengthen global climate action momentum.

Statement II: India has indicated a shift in its climate change approach by focussing less on adaptation rather than mitigation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation: The withdrawal of a major country like the USA from the Paris Agreement would weaken, not strengthen, global climate action. Statement II is also incorrect as India has been focusing on both mitigation and adaptation.

Question 33.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Magnetite is a natural magnet.

Statement II: A freely suspended magnet always aligns in N-S direction

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation: Both statements are correct regarding magnetism. Magnetite is a naturally occurring magnetic mineral, and a freely suspended magnet aligns with the Earth’s magnetic field in the North-South direction.

Question 34.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I

. The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia.

Statement II: Force of friction always opposes motion of objects.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation: Both statements are correct in the context of physics. Mass is a measure of inertia, and friction opposes motion.

Question 35.

Tianwen-1 Mars mission pertains to which of the following country?

A) Japan

B) South Korea

C) China

D) USA

Correct Answer: C) China

Explanation: Tianwen-1 is the first Mars mission of China.

Question 36.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Tropical humid climates exist between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.

Statement II: Mediterranean type of climate occurs around Mediterranean Sea.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation: Both statements are correct, as tropical humid climates are found between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, and the Mediterranean climate is found around the Mediterranean Sea.

Question 37.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The meanest and most onerous kind of forced labour was to carry loads known as ‘Pund Begar’.

Statement II: The Begar forms in Chamba State were five in number called ‘Panj Haqq’.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation: Both statements are correct as per the provided information.

Question 38.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Gujjars of Himachal Pradesh are both Hindus and Muslims.

Statement II: Lahaulis and Spitians have Mongoloid features

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation: Both statements are correct.

Question 39.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Rohtang Pass lies in Dhauladhar ranges.

Statement II: Kunzum Pass is famous as Valley of Shadows.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation: Rohtang Pass is located in the Pir Panjal range, and Kunzum Pass is a high mountain pass connecting the Kullu and Lahaul valleys.

Question 40.

Consider the following statements regarding the administrative structure of Kullu tehsil at the end of the 19th Century:

Statement I: Tehsils were divided into waziris, and waziris into phatis.

Statement II: Each phati was further divided into kothis.

Choose the correct option:

A) Both statements are correct

B) Only statement I is correct

C) Only statement II is correct

D) Both statements are incorrect

Correct Answer: A) Both statements are correct

Explanation: Both statements correctly describe the administrative divisions of Kullu tehsil at the end of the 19th century.

Question 41.

Arrange the following states with share of women-led MSMEs during 2024 from highest to lowest:

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) West Bengal

(3) Telangana

(4) Karnataka

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

B) (2), (1), (3), (4)

C) (4), (3), (2), (1)

D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Correct Answer: A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Explanation: This option arranges the states in descending order of their share of women-led MSMEs during 2024 as listed in the provided options.

Question 42.

Arrange the following schemes of Government of India from newest to oldest:

(1) Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana

(2) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes

(3) Atal Bhujal Yojana

(4) Stand-up India Yojana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

B) (2), (3), (1), (4)

C) (4), (3), (2), (1)

D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Correct Answer: B) (2), (3), (1), (4)

Explanation: This option arranges the schemes from newest to oldest based on their launch years: Mangrove Initiative (2023), Atal Bhujal Yojana (2019), PM Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana (2017), and Stand-up India (2016).

Question 43.

Arrange these events related to Modern Indian History in chronological order:

(1) Ganpati Festival started by Tilak

(2) Appointment of a Police Commission Chaired by Andrew Fraser

(3) Shivaji Mahotsav started by Tilak

(4) Appointment of Hunter Education Commission

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (4), (3), (2)

B) (4), (1), (3), (2)

C) (1), (3), (2), (4)

D) (4), (1), (2), (3)

Correct Answer: B) (4), (1), (3), (2)

Explanation: This option arranges the events in chronological order: Hunter Education Commission (1882), Ganpati Festival started by Tilak (1893), Shivaji Mahotsav started by Tilak (1896), and Police Commission Chaired by Andrew Fraser (1902).

Question 44.

Arrange these Governor General/Viceroy of British India in chronological order.

(1) Lord Auckland

(2) Lord Ellenborough

(3) Lord Lansdowne

(4) Lord Elgin-I

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (4), (3)

B) (1), (2), (3), (4)

C) (4), (1), (2), (3)

D) (4), (2), (1), (3)

Correct Answer: A) (1), (2), (4), (3)

Explanation: This option arranges the Governor Generals/Viceroys in chronological order of their tenure: Lord Auckland (1836-1842), Lord Ellenborough (1842-1844), Lord Elgin-I (1862-1863), and Lord Lansdowne (1888-1894).

Question 45.

Arrange the following uplands of peninsular India from South to North:

(1) Palghat

(2) Javadi Hills

(3) Bhorghat

(4) Rajmahal Hills

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

B) (2), (3), (4), (1)

C) (3), (4), (2), (1)

D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Correct Answer: A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Explanation: This option arranges the uplands from South to North: Palghat, Javadi Hills, Bhorghat, and Rajmahal Hills.

Question 46.

Arrange the following tiger reserves of India from North to South:

(1) Corbett

(2) Valmiki

(3) Indrawati

(4) Bhadra

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (2), (4), (1), (3)

B) (1), (2), (3), (4)

C) (1), (3), (2), (4)

D) (1), (4), (2), (3)

Correct Answer: B) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Explanation: This option arranges the tiger reserves from North to South based on their geographical location.

Question 47.

Arrange the following freedom movement events in order of their happenings:

(1) INA Trial

(2) Quit India Movement

(3) Civil Disobedience Movement

(4) Non-Cooperation Movement.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

B) (2), (3), (4), (1)

C) (3), (4), (1), (2)

D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Correct Answer: D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Explanation: This option arranges the freedom movement events in chronological order: Non-Cooperation Movement (1920), Civil Disobedience Movement (1930), Quit India Movement (1942), and INA Trial (1945).

Question 48.

Arrange the following by the year they became operational in India’s financial sector:

(1) Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)

(2) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)

(3) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)

(4) Account Aggregator Framework

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

B) (2), (1), (4), (3)

C) (4), (2), (3), (1)

D) (3), (2), (1), (4)

Correct Answer: B) (2), (1), (4), (3)

Explanation: This option arranges the financial systems in chronological order of their operational year: NEFT (2005), RTGS (2004), UPI (2016), and Account Aggregator Framework (2021).

Question 49.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia.

Statement II: Force of friction always opposes motion of objects.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation: Both statements are correct in the context of physics. Mass is a measure of inertia, and friction opposes motion.

Question 50.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Magnetite is a natural magnet.

Statement II: A freely suspended magnet always aligns in N-S direction

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 51.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The withdrawal of USA from Paris Agreement in 2025 will strengthen global climate action momentum.

Statement II: India has indicated a shift in its climate change approach by focussing less on adaptation rather than mitigation.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 52.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: India’s first wolf sanctuary is located at Bankapur in Karnataka.

Statement II: The Indian grey wolf is classified as endangered species by the IUCN.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation: India’s first wolf sanctuary is at Rehakuri in Maharashtra, not Bankapur, and the Indian grey wolf is classified as ‘Least Concern’ by the IUCN, not endangered.

Question 53.

Read the following statements:

Statement I: Share of agriculture in total GSDP of Himachal Pradesh has declined from about 75 percent in 1950-51 to little above 20 percent in 2023-24.

Statement II: As per economic survey 2024-25 of the state, however, in terms of employment still 54 percent of the state population is engaged in primary sector.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 54.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) aims to raise Rs. 6 lakh crore by FY 2024-25.

Statement II: The NMP includes monetisation of assets in the education sector.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect as the NMP does not include assets in the education sector.

Question 55.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme covers 14 sectors, with a total outlay of Rs. 1.97 lakh crore.

Statement II: The PLI scheme has achieved 100% of its targeted investment in the electronics sector by FY 2024-25.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Question 56.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In the Interim Government of 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru was Prime Minister and Head of the Executive Council of Viceroy.

Statement II: Rajni Kothari observed that “It is not politics that gets caste ridden, it is caste that gets politicised”.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Question 57.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was not associated with “Independent Labour Party” in India.

Statement II: Kanshi Ram was associated with the “Scheduled Castes Federation” in India.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I

and Statement II are incorrect

Question 58.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Mukund Rao Patil started publishing the mouthpiece of Satyashodak Samaj, ‘Dinmitra’ from 1910.

Statement II: Natal Indian Congress was established in 1896. At that time Mahatma Gandhi was made its President.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Question 59.

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Rohtang Pass lies in Dhauladhar ranges.

Statement II: Kunzum Pass is famous as Valley of Shadows.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation: Rohtang Pass is located in the Pir Panjal range, and Kunzum Pass is a high mountain pass connecting the Kullu and Lahaul valleys.

Question 60.

Consider the following statements regarding the administrative structure of Kullu tehsil at the end of the 19th Century:

Statement I: Tehsils were divided into waziris, and waziris into phatis.

Statement II: Each phati was further divided into kothis.

Choose the correct option:

A) Both statements are correct

B) Only statement I is correct

C) Only statement II is correct

D) Both statements are incorrect

Correct Answer: A) Both statements are correct

Explanation: Both statements correctly describe the administrative divisions of Kullu tehsil at the end of the 19th century.

Question 61.

Arrange the following states with share of women-led MSMEs during 2024 from highest to lowest:

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) West Bengal

(3) Telangana

(4) Karnataka

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

B) (2), (1), (3), (4)

C) (4), (3), (2), (1)

D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Correct Answer: A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Explanation: This option arranges the states in descending order of their share of women-led MSMEs during 2024 as listed in the provided options.

Question 62.

Arrange the following schemes of Government of India from newest to oldest:

(1) Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana

(2) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes

(3) Atal Bhujal Yojana

(4) Stand-up India Yojana

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

B) (2), (3), (1), (4)

C) (4), (3), (2), (1)

D) (2), (4), (1), (3)

Correct Answer: B) (2), (3), (1), (4)

Question 63.

Arrange these events related to Modern Indian History in chronological order:

(1) Ganpati Festival started by Tilak

(2) Appointment of a Police Commission Chaired by Andrew Fraser

(3) Shivaji Mahotsav started by Tilak

(4) Appointment of Hunter Education Commission

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (4), (3), (2)

B) (4), (1), (3), (2)

C) (1), (3), (2), (4)

D) (4), (1), (2), (3)

Correct Answer: B) (4), (1), (3), (2)

Question 64.

Arrange these Governor General/Viceroy of British India in chronological order.

(1) Lord Auckland

(2) Lord Ellenborough

(3) Lord Lansdowne

(4) Lord Elgin-I

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (4), (3)

B) (1), (2), (3), (4)

C) (4), (1), (2), (3)

D) (4), (2), (1), (3)

Correct Answer: A) (1), (2), (4), (3)

Question 65.

Arrange the following uplands of peninsular India from South to North:

(1) Palghat

(2) Javadi Hills

(3) Bhorghat

(4) Rajmahal Hills

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

B) (2), (3), (4), (1)

C) (3), (4), (2), (1)

D) (4), (3), (2), (1)

Correct Answer: A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Explanation: This option arranges the uplands from South to North: Palghat, Javadi Hills, Bhorghat, and Rajmahal Hills.

Question 66.

Arrange the following tiger reserves of India from North to South:

(1) Corbett

(2) Valmiki

(3) Indrawati

(4) Bhadra

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (2), (4), (1), (3)

B) (1), (2), (3), (4)

C) (1), (3), (2), (4)

D) (1), (4), (2), (3)

Correct Answer: B) (1), (2), (3), (4)

Explanation: This option arranges the tiger reserves from North to South based on their geographical location.

67. Consider the following statements:

(1) The cool dry season lasts from mid-September to mid-December in India.

(2) The cyclones in October form over the Bay of Bengal between 8° and 14° N.

(3) The Coromandel coastal region receives more than 90 percent of its rainfall during the summer season.

(4) October and November months represent a primary rainy season in Kerala.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (3) and (4) only

(B) (2) and (4) only

(D) (1) and (3) only

Answer: (B) (2) and (4) only

Explanation: October is a peak month for cyclone formation in the Bay of Bengal, and Kerala receives significant rainfall from the retreating Northeast Monsoon in October-November.

68. Consider the following statements:

(1) Constitutional Draft Committee had seven members.

(2) B.R. Ambedkar was Chairman of Drafts Committee.

(3) Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the member of that committee.

(4) Mohammad Saadulla was not member of that committee.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (3) only

(B) (2) and (4) only

(D) (1) and (2) only

Answer: (D) (1) and (2) only Explanation: The Drafting Committee of the Constitution had a total of seven members, and it was chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.

69. Consider the following statements:

(1) INA trial was first initiated against Shah Nawaz, Prem Sahgal and G.S. Dhillon.

(2) Subhash Chandra Bose was main leader of defence team.

(3) This trial was held in a secretive manner.

(4) From Congress Party Jawaharlal Nehru, Tej Bahadure Sapru and K.N. Katju ready for defence of these INA soldiers.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (3) and (4) only

(D) (2) and (3) only

Answer: (C) (1) and (4) only

Explanation: The first INA trial at the Red Fort was against Shah Nawaz, Sahgal, and Dhillon, and the defence team included prominent figures like Nehru, Sapru, and Katju.

70. Consider the following statements:

(1) Article 13(2) provides reservations to backward classes.

(2) Article 15(4) and 16(4) provide reservations for OBCs.

(3) Article 15(6) and 16(6) provide reservations to EWS of society.

(4) Article 14 provides reservation for SC & STs.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(D) (4) and (1) only

Answer: (B) (2) and (3) only

Explanation: Reservations for OBCs are enabled by Articles 15(4) and 16(4), while reservations for EWS were introduced through Articles 15(6) and 16(6).

71. Which of the following statements about India’s inflation trends in 2024 are correct?

(1) CPI inflation fell to 3.65% in August 2024.

(2) Core inflation remained above 4% throughout FY 2024-25.

(3) WPI inflation turned negative in Q1 2024-25.

(4) Food inflation was the primary driver of CPI increases.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (4) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(D) (3) and (4) only

Answer: (A) (1) and (4) only

Explanation: In 2024, food inflation was the main driver of CPI, and inflation did fall significantly in August, while core inflation trended below 4% and WPI remained positive.

72. Which of the following statements about India’s startup ecosystem in 2024 are correct?

(1) India had over 1.17 lakh recognized startups.

(2) The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme disbursed Rs. 1,000 crore.

(3) Unicorn startups doubled in number since 2020.

(4) The National Startup Advisory Council was dissolved in 2024.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (4) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(D) (3) and (4) only

Answer: (C) (1) and (2) only

Explanation: By the end of 2024, India had surpassed 1.17 lakh DPIIT-recognized startups and the Startup India Seed Fund Scheme crossed the milestone of sanctioning/disbursing over ₹1,000 crore. The number of unicorns had nearly tripled (not just doubled), and the National Startup Advisory Council remains active.

73. Consider the following statements:

(1) Soil is important for life on earth.

(2) Removal of land surface by ice is known as erosion.

(3) Clay and loam soil is used to make pots.

(4) Clayey soil is used to grow cotton crop.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) and (4) only

(D) (1) and (4) only

Answer: (D) (1) and (4) only

Explanation: Soil is fundamental to life, and clayey soils (like black soil) are famously used for growing cotton, making statements (1) and (4) correct, while loam soil is not ideal for making pots.

74. Consider the following statements:

(1) A concave mirror always forms a real image.

(2) A real image cannot be obtained on a screen.

(3) A concave lens always form a virtual image.

(4) White light is composed of seven colours.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) and (4) only

(D) (1) and (3) only

Answer: (C) (3) and (4) only

Explanation: A concave lens (diverging) always forms a virtual image, and white light is composed of a spectrum of seven colours (VIBGYOR).

75. Consider the following statements:

(1) World Day of Social Justice is celebrated on February 28.

(2) World Day of Social Justice 2025 theme was “Empowering Social Protection”.

(3) World Day of Social Justice was established by UNGA in 2007.

(4) World Day of Social Justice is commemorated to combat unemployment, social exclusion and poverty.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (2) only

(B) (2) and (3) only

(D) (1) and (3) only

Answer: (C) (3) and (4) only

Explanation: The UN General Assembly established this day in 2007 to combat poverty and social exclusion; however, it is celebrated on Feb 20, and the 2025 theme was different.

76. Consider the following statements:

(1) Atacama is a coastal desert.

(2) Rub-el-Khali is a cold desert.

(3) Sahara desert annually receives more than 50 cm of rainfall.

(4) Cold deserts generally have 2-25°C annual temperature.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (2) and (4) only

(B) (1) and (4) only

(D) (2) and (3) only

Answer: (B) (1) and (4) only

Explanation: The Atacama is a well-known coastal desert, and while the temperature range for cold deserts in statement (4) is a simplification, the statements about the Rub-el-Khali (a hot desert) and Sahara’s rainfall are definitively incorrect.

77. Consider the following statements regarding public finance of Himachal Pradesh:

(1) According to Budget Estimate for the year 2024-25, share of revenue expenditure out of total expenditure is around 80 percent.

(2) Debt as a percentage of GSDP reached 75.33 during the year 2022-23.

(3) State’s own tax revenue as a percentage of total revenue for the year 2024-25 (BE) increased to 27.4.

(4) During FY 2024-25 (BE) education and health sector were allocated Rs. 9995 and Rs. 8575 crores respectively.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (3) only

(B) (1) and (2) only

(D) (2) and (3) only

Answer: (A) (1) and (3) only

Explanation: Based on the HP Budget 2024-25, revenue expenditure was indeed around 80% of total expenditure and the state’s own tax revenue was about 27.4% of total revenue, while the other figures are incorrect.

78. According to PLFS 2023-24, share of secondary and tertiary sector in total employment in Himachal Pradesh respectively are:

(A) 25 percent and 30 percent

(B) 27 percent and 30 percent

(D) 18 percent and 25 percent

Answer: (C) 22 percent and 24 percent

Explanation: As per the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data for 2023-24, the employment share in Himachal Pradesh was approximately 22% in the secondary sector and 24% in the tertiary sector.

79. According to Census 2011, consider the following statements regarding sex ratio (females per 1,000 males) in Kullu district:

Statement I: Sex ratio in 2011 is lower than in 1911.

Statement II: Sex ratio in 2011 in Kullu District is lower than in Himachal.

Choose the correct option:

(A) Both Statements are correct

(B) Only Statement I is correct

(D) Both Statements are incorrect

Answer: (A) Both Statements are correct

Explanation: According to census data, Kullu’s sex ratio in 2011 (942) was lower than Himachal Pradesh’s overall ratio (972) and also lower than Kullu’s historical sex ratio in 1911 (approx. 978).

Based on an analysis of official data, this question appears to be flawed as only one of the statements is correct, while all the answer options require a combination of two correct statements. Here is a breakdown:

80. Consider the following statements:

(1) Kibber is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh.

(2) Kheerganga National Park was established in 1994 in Himachal Pradesh.

(3) Tarla wildlife sanctuary of Himachal Pradesh has an area of 46.4 km².

(4) Chail wildlife sanctuary of Himachal Pradesh was established in 1962.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (1) and (3) only

(B) (1) and (2) only

(D) (2) and (4) only

Answer: None of the options are correct.

Explanation:

(1) is correct: Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary, with an area of 2220 sq. km, is the largest in Himachal Pradesh.
(2) is incorrect: Kheerganga National Park was established in 2010, not 1994.
(3) is incorrect: There is no “Tarla” sanctuary; the similarly named “Talra” sanctuary has an area of 40.48 sq. km, not 46.4 sq. km.
(4) is incorrect: Chail Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1976, not 1962.

Since only statement (1) is correct, none of the provided paired options can be the right answer.

81. Match List I with List II:

List-I (Scheme)	List-II (Ministry)
(a) Atal Pension Yojana	(i) Ministry of Communications
(b) Startup India Scheme	(ii) Ministry of Finance
(c) Eco-NIWAS	(iii) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) BharatNet	(iv) Ministry of Power

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

(B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Explanation: Atal Pension Yojana is under the Finance Ministry, Startup India is under Commerce & Industry, Eco-NIWAS is under the Power Ministry, and BharatNet is under the Communications Ministry.

82. Which of the following institutes drafted the Legal Metrology (IST) Rules, 2025?

(A) National Physical Laboratory

(B) Physical Research Laboratory

(D) National Institute for Interdisciplinary Science and Technology

Answer: (A) National Physical Laboratory

Explanation: The National Physical Laboratory (NPL) is India’s official timekeeper and is responsible for maintaining and disseminating the Indian Standard Time (IST).

83. Match List I with List II:

List-I (Author)	List-II (Book)
(a) Mahatma Gandhi	(i) The Political Future of India
(b) J.L. Nehru	(ii) Pakistan or The Partition of India
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar	(iii) Whither India
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai	(iv) Guide to London

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

(B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

(D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Answer: (A) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Explanation: The correct pairings are: Mahatma Gandhi – Guide to London, J.L. Nehru – Whither India, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar – Pakistan or The Partition of India, and Lala Lajpat Rai – The Political Future of India.

84. Match the Tribal Leaders with their respective region.

List-I (Tribal Leader)	List-II (Region)
(a) U Tirot Sing	(i) Odisha
(b) Thalakkal Chandu	(ii) Andhra
(c) Alluri Sitaram Raju	(iii) Kerala
(d) Chakra Bisoi	(iv) Meghalaya

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Answer: (C) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Explanation: The correct pairings are: U Tirot Sing (Khasi rebellion) – Meghalaya, Thalakkal Chandu (Pazhassi rebellion) – Kerala, Alluri Sitaram Raju (Rampa rebellion) – Andhra, and Chakra Bisoi (Khond rebellion) – Odisha.

85. In which case Supreme Court decided that not singing of National Anthem cannot be considered its disrespect or offence?

(A) Bijoe Emmanuel case

(B) Braj Bhushan case

(D) M.C. Mittal case

Answer: (A) Bijoe Emmanuel case

Explanation: In the 1986 case of Bijoe Emmanuel & Ors vs State Of Kerala, the Supreme Court ruled that standing respectfully for the National Anthem without singing it is not an offense.

86. Match List I with List II:

List-I (Place)	List-II (Industry)
(a) Phagwara	(i) Silk Textile Industry
(b) Gokak	(ii) Woollen Textile Industry
(c) Kullu	(iii) Sugar Industry
(d) Mandya	(iv) Cotton Textile Industry

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

(B) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

(D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Answer: (D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Explanation: Phagwara is famous for cotton textiles, Kullu for woollen shawls, and Mandya is known as the “Sugar City”. In this context, Gokak (in the silk-producing state of Karnataka) is matched with the silk industry.

Question 87.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Range)	List-II (Peak)
(a) The Aravalli Range	(i) Gali Konda
(b) The Satpura Range	(ii) Guru Shikhar
(c) The Western Ghats	(iii) Kalsubai
(d) The Eastern Ghats	(iv) Dhupgarh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Correct Answer: A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Explanation: This option correctly matches each mountain range with its corresponding peak as per the provided list.

Question 88.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Social Reformers)	List-II (Organisation)
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy	(i) Satya Shodhak Samaj
(b) Swami Dayananda	(ii) Ramakrishna Mission
(c) Swami Vivekananda	(iii) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Jyotiba Phule	(iv) Arya Samaj

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

C) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Correct Answer: B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the social reformers with the organizations they founded as per the provided list.

Question 89.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Constitutional Amendments)	List-II (Reservations for SC & STs)
(a) 77th Amendment	(i) “Consequential Seniority in Reservation
(b) 81st Amendment	(ii) Reservations in Promotion
(c) 82nd Amendment	(iii) Relaxation in Qualifying marks
(d) 85th Amendment	(iv) Carry forward unfulfilled vacancies of SC & STs

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

D) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Correct Answer: A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the constitutional amendments with the relevant provisions for reservations for SC & STs as per the provided list.

Question 90.

Match the following economic policies with their launch years:

List-I	List-II
(a) PM-KISAN	(i) 2016
(b) Ayushman Bharat	(ii) 2019
(c) Startup India	(iii) 2018
(d) Gati Shakti	(iv) 2021

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Correct Answer: A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the economic policies with their launch years as per the provided list.

Question 91.

Match the following inflation metrics with their values for FY 2024-25 (April-December):

List-I	List-II
(a) CPI Inflation (%)	(i) 2.1
(b) Food Inflation (%)	(ii) 8.4
(c) Core Inflation (%)	(iii) 5.4
(d) WPI Inflation (%)	(iv) 3.5

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Correct Answer: A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the inflation metrics with their corresponding values for FY 2024-25 (April-December) as per the provided data.

Question 92.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (ICFRE Centre)	List-II (Place)
(a) IWST	(i) Hyderabad
(b) IFB	(ii) Jorhat
(c) IFR	(iii) Bengaluru
(d) RFRI	(iv) Ranchi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

Correct Answer: C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv),

(d)-(ii)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the ICFRE Centre with its location as per the provided list.

Question 93.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Indian Breed of Sheep)	List-II (State where found)
(a) Patanwadi	(i) Rajasthan
(b) Bakharwal	(ii) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Rampur Bushair	(iii) Gujarat
(d) Lohi	(iv) Himachal Pradesh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

B) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Correct Answer: C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the Indian sheep breeds with the states where they are found, as listed in the provided table.

Question 94.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Function)	List-II (Part of digestive canal)
(a) Absorption of food	(i) Stomach
(b) Killing of bacteria	(ii) Large intestine
(c) Chewing of food	(iii) Small intestine
(d) Formation of faeces	(iv) Buccal cavity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

Correct Answer: A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the function with the corresponding part of the digestive canal as listed in the provided table.

Question 95.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Day)	List-II (Date)
(a) Jan Aushadhi Diwas	(i) April 18
(b) World Sparrow Day	(ii) March 20
(c) Pi Day	(iii) March 07
(d) World Heritage Day	(iv) March 14

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

D) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

Correct Answer: A) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the days with their corresponding dates as listed in the provided table.

Question 96.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Name of Peak)	List-II (Country)
(a) Mt. Whitney	(i) Canada
(b) Mt. Logan	(ii) U.S.A.
(c) Ben Nevis	(iii) France
(d) Mont Blanc	(iv) Scotland

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

B) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

C) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

D) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Correct Answer: A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

Explanation: This option correctly matches each peak with its corresponding country as listed in the provided information.

Question 97.

Who was the politician and social worker popularly called “Sindhi Gandhi” in the Sindh region, and was elected to the 1st legislative assembly of part ‘C’ state of Himachal Pradesh (1952-56)?

A) Krishna Nand Swami

B) Pt. Padam Dev

C) Gauri Parsad

D) Piru Ram

Correct Answer: C) Gauri Parsad

Explanation: Gauri Parsad was a politician and social worker from the Sindh region, known as “Sindhi Gandhi,” who was elected to the first legislative assembly of Himachal Pradesh from 1952-56.

Question 98.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Code)	List-II (District)
(a) Highest Rainfall (2018 Data)	(i) Shimla
(b) Second Most Incidents Reported (2024 Crime Data)	(ii) Mandi
(c) Fourth Highest Population (2011 Census)	(iii) Kangra
(d) Fourth Largest Area	(iv) Solan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Correct Answer: C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the indicators with the corresponding districts as per the provided lists.

Question 99.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Scheme)	List-II (Starting Year)
(a) Mukhya Mantri Roshni Yojana	(i) 2015
(b) Himachal Pradesh Horticulture Development Project	(ii) 2019
(c) Mukhya Mantri Gram Path Yojana	(iii) 2009
(d) Swavalamban Yojana	(iv) 2020

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)

B) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)

Correct Answer: C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

Explanation: This option correctly matches the schemes with their starting years as per the provided list.

Question 100.

Match List I with List II:

List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary)	List-II (District)
(a) Kias	(i) Kullu
(b) Tarla	(ii) Shimla
(c) Tundah	(iii) Chamba
(d) Bandli	(iv) Mandi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

B) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

C) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)

D) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)

Correct Answer: A) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

Explanation: This option correctly matches each Wildlife Sanctuary with its corresponding District as per the provided list.

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