1. Complete the sentence: A burnt child

(A) dreads the burns

(B) dreads the fire

(C) dares the fire

(D) scares the fire

Correct Answer: (B) dreads the fire

Explanation: The idiom means someone who has had a bad experience avoids similar situations.

2. Change the narration: She said to me, “The earth is round.”

(A) She asked me that the earth was round

(B) She said that the earth is round

(C) She tells me that the earth is round

(D) She told me that the earth is round

Correct Answer: (D) She told me that the earth is round

Explanation: In reported speech, “said to” changes to “told,” and the tense remains present for a universal fact.

3. Change the Voice: “Let a lie never be told”

(A) One should never tell a lie

(B) None should tell a lie

(C) Don’t tell a lie

(D) Never tell a lie

Correct Answer: (D) Never tell a lie

Explanation: The imperative “Let” changes to an imperative form in active voice, maintaining the negative structure.

4. The young one of ‘Cat’ is called?

(A) Baby cat

(B) Pup

(C) Kitten

(D) None of these

Correct Answer: (C) Kitten

Explanation: The young one of a cat is universally known as a “kitten.”

5. Either of these paths ………… to the temple

(A) lead

(B) leads

(C) leading

(D) have led

Correct Answer: (B) leads

Explanation: “Either” is singular, so the singular verb “leads” is correct.

6. They ………. her since she was a child

(A) have known

(B) were knowing

(C) know

(D) are knowing

Correct Answer: (A) have known

Explanation: The present perfect “have known” indicates an action continuing from the past to the present.

7. …….. what has passed away!

(A) For

(B) Into

(C) At

(D) Of

Correct Answer: (C) At

Explanation: The phrase “at what has passed away” is a poetic way to express regret or reflection.

8. The collective noun for owls is:

(A) pack

(B) school

(C) swarm

(D) parliament

Correct Answer: (D) parliament

Explanation: The collective noun for owls is a “parliament.”

9. Walk fast lest you …….. miss the train.

(A) would

(B) should

(C) could

(D) can

Correct Answer: (B) should

Explanation: “Lest” is followed by “should” to indicate a precaution against an undesired outcome.

10. We …….. to help the poor.

(A) need

(B) dare

(C) ought

(D) shall

Correct Answer: (C) ought

Explanation: “Ought” expresses moral obligation, fitting the context of helping the poor.

11. In the sentence, ‘I have lost my book’. The word ‘have’ is…

(A) Principal verb

(B) Auxiliary verb

(C) Transitive verb

(D) None of these

Correct Answer: (B) Auxiliary verb

Explanation: “Have” is an auxiliary verb in the present perfect tense, assisting the main verb “lost.”

12. The correct saying is:

(A) Greed is a curse

(B) A greed is a curse

(C) The greed is a curse

(D) None of these

Correct Answer: (A) Greed is a curse

Explanation: The correct proverb is “Greed is a curse,” without articles.

13. Re-arrange the following jumbled words and choose the correct one: age/an/this/mobile/of/phones/is

(A) An age of mobile phone is this

(B) This an age is of mobile phones

(C) This is an age of mobile phones

(D) Mobile phone is an age of this

Correct Answer: (C) This is an age of mobile phones

Explanation: The correct arrangement forms a grammatically correct sentence.

14. Which one is not correct?

(A) My friends do not smoke

(B) Ram has gone to Shimla

(C) He is reading a book

(D) A lot of money are wasted on the project

Correct Answer: (D) A lot of money are wasted on the project

Explanation: “A lot of money” is singular, so it should be “is wasted,” not “are wasted.”

15. What is the comparative degree of “Busy”?

(A) Busiest

(B) Busier

(C) More busy

(D) Most busy

Correct Answer: (B) Busier

Explanation: The comparative form of “busy” is “busier.”

16. लिखने की रीति को क्या कहते हैं?

(ए) लिखावट

(बी) सुलेख

(सी) श्रुतिलेख

(डी) वर्तनी

Correct Answer: (बी) सुलेख

Explanation: “सुलेख” refers to the art or style of writing (calligraphy).

17. ‘हर पन्द्रह दिन बाद होने वाला’ वाक्यांश के लिए सही शब्द कौन सा है?

(ए) साप्ताहिक

(बी) वार्षिक

(सी) मासिक

(डी) पाक्षिक

Correct Answer: (डी) पाक्षिक

Explanation: “पाक्षिक” means occurring every fifteen days (fortnightly).

18. ‘आचार्य’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग क्या होगा?

(ए) आचार्यणी

(बी) आचार्या

(सी) आचार्या

(डी) आचार्याणी

Correct Answer: (बी) आचार्या

Explanation: The feminine form of “आचार्य” (teacher) is “आचार्या.”

19. हिन्दी वर्णमाला में स्वरों की कुल संख्या कितनी है?

(ए) 33

(बी) 13

(सी) 44

(डी) 11

Correct Answer: (डी) 11

Explanation: The Hindi alphabet has 11 vowels (स्वर).

20. ‘देवालय’ शब्द में कौन सी संधि है?

(ए) गुण संधि

(बी) यण संधि

(सी) दीर्घ संधि

(डी) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

Correct Answer: (ए) गुण संधि

Explanation: “देवालय” (देव + आलय) involves गुण संधि, where “अ + आ = आ.”

21. अकर्मक और सकर्मक किसके दो भेद हैं?

(ए) संज्ञा

(बी) क्रिया

(सी) सर्वनाम

(डी) विशेषण

Correct Answer: (बी) क्रिया

Explanation: अकर्मक (intransitive) and सकर्मक (transitive) are types of verbs (क्रिया).

22. फल के रूप में ‘आम’ शब्द किस प्रकार का शब्द है?

(ए) तत्सम

(बी) तद्भव

(सी) देशज

(डी) विदेशी

Correct Answer: (बी) तद्भव

Explanation: “आम” is a तद्भव word, derived from Sanskrit “आम्र.”

23. जिस वाक्य में दो या अधिक मुख्य या स्वतंत्र उपवाक्य हों, उसे क्या कहते हैं?

(ए) संयुक्त वाक्य

(बी) सरल वाक्य

(सी) मिश्र वाक्य

(डी) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

Correct Answer: (ए) संयुक्त वाक्य

Explanation: A sentence with multiple independent clauses is called a संयुक्त वाक्य (compound sentence).

24. ‘अनुराग’ शब्द का विलोम क्या होता है?

(ए) प्रेम

(बी) विराग

(सी) पराग

(डी) उपरोक्त में से कोई नहीं

Correct Answer: (बी) विराग

Explanation: The antonym of “अनुराग” (affection) is “विराग” (detachment).

25. निम्नलिखित में से शुद्ध रूप कौन सा है?

(ए) अनुग्रहीत

(बी) अनुगृहीत

(सी) अनुग्रहित

(डी) अनुग्रहित

Correct Answer: (बी) अनुगृहीत

Explanation: “अनुगृहीत” is the correct Hindi spelling for “obliged” or “favored.”

26. ‘बादल’ शब्द का पर्यायवाची है:

(ए) जलज

(बी) नीरज

(सी) जलद

(डी) पुष्कर

Correct Answer: (सी) जलद

Explanation: “जलद” is a synonym for “बादल” (cloud).

27. ‘व’ का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है?

(ए) कण्ठ

(बी) ओष्ठ

(सी) दंतोष्ठ

(डी) मूर्धा

Correct Answer: (सी) दंतोष्ठ

Explanation: The letter “व” is pronounced using both lips and teeth (दंतोष्ठ).

28. हिन्दी भाषा किस लिपि में लिखी जाती है?

(ए) ब्राह्मी

(बी) संस्कृत

(सी) देवनागरी

(डी) भारती

Correct Answer: (सी) देवनागरी

Explanation: Hindi is written in the Devanagari script.

29. रामचरितमानस की भाषा कौन सी है?

(ए) अवधी

(बी) ब्रज भाषा

(सी) खड़ी बोली

(डी) संस्कृत

Correct Answer: (ए) अवधी

Explanation: “रामचरितमानस” by Tulsidas is written in the Awadhi language.

30. ‘तूती बोलना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ बताएँ:

(ए) बाजा बजना

(बी) प्रभाव होना

(सी) बेकार होना

(डी) डर जाना

Correct Answer: (बी) प्रभाव होना

Explanation: The idiom “तूती बोलना” means to have influence or dominance.

31. What does our body produce to fight the invader when a disease-carrying microbe enters the body?

(A) Antibiotics

(B) Antigens

(C) Pathogen

(D) Antibodies

Correct Answer: (D) Antibodies

Explanation: The body produces antibodies to fight disease-causing microbes.

32. Which of the following is responsible for marble cancer?

(A) Acid rain

(B) CFC

(C) Ozone

(D) Oxygen

Correct Answer: (A) Acid rain

Explanation: Acid rain corrodes marble, causing “marble cancer.”

33. Lightning conductor is a device used to protect ____________?

(A) Building from the effect of lightning

(B) Building from the effect of earthquake

(C) Building from heavy rain

(D) Structures from heavy wind

Correct Answer: (A) Building from the effect of lightning

Explanation: A lightning conductor protects buildings by safely directing lightning to the ground.

34. In human body the blood glucose level is controlled by ____________ hormone.

(A) Glucogen

(B) Insulin

(C) Adrenalin

(D) Thyroxin

Correct Answer: (B) Insulin

Explanation: Insulin regulates blood glucose levels in the human body.

35. Rhizobium bacteria found in root nodules of leguminous plants is an ____________.

(A) Atmospheric carbon fixer

(B) Atmospheric oxygen fixer

(C) Atmospheric nitrogen fixer

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (C) Atmospheric nitrogen fixer

Explanation: Rhizobium bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen into compounds usable by plants.

36. Which of the following non-metal is good conductor of electricity?

(A) Coal

(B) Graphite

(C) Sulphur

(D) Phosphorus

Correct Answer: (B) Graphite

Explanation: Graphite, a form of carbon, is a non-metal that conducts electricity.

37. In which of the following categories Adam’s Apple is more prominent?

(A) Boys of any age

(B) Adolescent girls

(C) Girls of any age

(D) Adolescent boys

Correct Answer: (D) Adolescent boys

Explanation: The Adam’s apple is more prominent in adolescent boys due to laryngeal growth during puberty.

38. What is the chemical name of dry ice?

(A) Duralium

(B) Calcium sulphate

(C) Solid carbon dioxide

(D) Silver nitrate

Correct Answer: (C) Solid carbon dioxide

Explanation: Dry ice is the solid form of carbon dioxide (CO₂).

39. Name the pandemic which has affected people all over the world during 2020–2021.

(A) SARS

(B) Delta

(C) COVID-19

(D) Wuhan

Correct Answer: (C) COVID-19

Explanation: COVID-19 was the global pandemic during 2020–2021.

40. Which of the following acid is present in gastric juice of human body?

(A) Acitic acid

(B) Nitric acid

(C) Hydrochloric acid

(D) Sulphuric acid

Correct Answer: (C) Hydrochloric acid

Explanation: Hydrochloric acid is present in gastric juice to aid digestion.

41. Some of the organisms are sensitive to different levels of air pollution and are used as pollution indicators. Select which among the following fits into this category:

(A) Fungi

(B) Fresh water algae

(C) Bacteria

(D) Lichens

Correct Answer: (D) Lichens

Explanation: Lichens are sensitive to air pollution and used as bioindicators.

42. Which of the following metal is stored in kerosene oil due to its high reactivity with air and water:

(A) Sodium

(B) Zinc

(C) Calcium

(D) Magnesium

Correct Answer: (A) Sodium

Explanation: Sodium is highly reactive and stored in kerosene to prevent reaction with air and water.

43. In which of the following area role of bacteria is not present?

(A) Leather Industry

(B) Apiculture Industry

(C) Alcohol and Vinegar Industry

(D) Tobacco & Tea Industry

Correct Answer: (B) Apiculture Industry

Explanation: Bacteria are not directly involved in apiculture (beekeeping).

44. An electric heater has a wattage of 1,500 W. How much electric energy does it consume in 10 hours?

(A) 15 kWh

(B) 150 W

(C) 15,000 W

(D) Data is insufficient

Correct Answer: (A) 15 kWh

Explanation: Energy = Power × Time = 1,500 W × 10 h = 15,000 Wh = 15 kWh.

45. If a person is not able to see far off objects, then from which of the following he or she is suffering?

(A) Presbyopia

(B) Hypermetropia

(C) Myopia

(D) Astigmatism

Correct Answer: (C) Myopia

Explanation: Myopia causes difficulty in seeing distant objects.

46. Which one of the following is laughing gas?

(A) NO₂ + CO₂

(B) N₂O₅

(C) N₂O

(D) NO₂

Correct Answer: (C) N₂O

Explanation: Nitrous oxide (N₂O) is known as laughing gas.

47. ‘Widal Test’ is used to diagnose which disease?

(A) Typhoid

(B) Malaria

(C) AIDS

(D) Cancer

Correct Answer: (A) Typhoid

Explanation: The Widal test is used to diagnose typhoid fever.

48. On what principle does stethoscope work?

(A) Refraction of sound

(B) Reflection of sound

(C) Speed of sound

(D) Intensity of sound

Correct Answer: (B) Reflection of sound

Explanation: A stethoscope works by reflecting sound waves from the body to the listener’s ears.

49. Which colour of light deviates least while passing through a glass prism?

(A) Red

(B) Blue

(C) Green

(D) Violet

Correct Answer: (A) Red

Explanation: Red light, with the longest wavelength, deviates the least in a prism.

50. Which of the following is included in an ecosystem?

(A) All living organisms

(B) Non-living objects

(C) Sometimes living and sometimes non-living objects

(D) Both living organisms and non-living objects

Correct Answer: (D) Both living organisms and non-living objects

Explanation: An ecosystem includes both biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living) components.

51. What is the probability of an impossible event?

(A) 1

(B) 0

(C) -1

(D) -2

Correct Answer: (B) 0

Explanation: The probability of an impossible event is 0.

52. Which of the following is an irrational number?

(A) 3

(B) 3

(C) 1/3

(D) π

Correct Answer: (D) π

Explanation: π is an irrational number as it cannot be expressed as a fraction.

53. Which one of the following is the formula for estimation of volume of a sphere?

(A) (2/3) πr³

(B) (4/3) πr³

(C) (1/3) πr³

(D) πr³

Correct Answer: (B) (4/3) πr³

Explanation: The volume of a sphere is calculated using the formula (4/3) πr³.

54. The two trees standing erect on a plane surface having height of 6 and 11m respectively. If the distance between the bottoms of both the trees is 12m, what is the distance between the top tips of these two trees?

(A) 17 m

(B) 13 m

(C) 6 m

(D) 18 m

Correct Answer: (B) 13 m

Explanation: Using the Pythagorean theorem, distance = √[(12)² + (11-6)²] = √(144 + 25) = √169 = 13 m.

55. A student multiplied a number by 3/5 instead of 5/3. What is the percentage error in the calculation?

(A) 4%

(B) 8%

(C) 16%

(D) 64%

Correct Answer: (D) 64%

Explanation: Error = |(5/3 – 3/5)| / (5/3) = (16/15) / (5/3) = 16/25 = 0.64 or 64%.

56. What is decimal expansion of 17/8?

(A) Terminating

(B) Non-terminating

(C) Recurring

(D) Non-terminating recurring

Correct Answer: (A) Terminating

Explanation: 17/8 = 2.125, which is a terminating decimal.

57. An angle which is greater than 180° and less than 360° is………

(A) Complimentary angle

(B) Reflex angle

(C) Straight angle

(D) Supplementary angle

Correct Answer: (B) Reflex angle

Explanation: A reflex angle measures between 180° and 360°.

58. Find the missing number in a given table: 6 9 15 8 12 20 4 6 ?

(A) 15

(B) 21

(C) 10

(D) 5

Correct Answer: (C) 10

Explanation: The pattern in each row is a + b = c (e.g., 6 + 9 = 15, 8 + 12 = 20). Thus, 4 + 6 = 10.

59. A man walks 1 km to east and then he turns to south and walks 5 km. After that he turns to east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. Find out how far is he from his starting point?

(A) 3 km

(B) 5 km

(C) 4 km

(D) 7 km

Correct Answer: (B) 5 km

Explanation: Net displacement: East = 1 + 2 = 3 km, North = 9 – 5 = 4 km. Distance = √(3² + 4²) = 5 km.

60. The total of the ages of Raju, Amar and Satish is 80 years. What was the total of their ages 3 years ago?

(A) 71 years

(B) 72 years

(C) 74 years

(D) 77 years

Correct Answer: (D) 77 years

Explanation: Three years ago, each person was 3 years younger, so total = 80 – (3 × 3) = 77 years.

61. A person crosses a 200 m long road in 2 minutes. What is his speed in km per hour?

(A) 3

(B) 6

(C) 9

(D) 12

Correct Answer: (B) 6

Explanation: Speed = Distance / Time = 200 m / 120 s = (200/1000 km) / (120/3600 hr) = 6 km/h.

62. In a mixture of 60 litres the ratio of milk and water is 2:1. If the ratio is to be made 1:2, find the quantity of water to be further added?

(A) 20 litres

(B) 30 litres

(C) 40 litres

(D) 60 litres

Correct Answer: (D) 60 litres

Explanation: Milk = 40 L, Water = 20 L. For 1:2 ratio, water needed = 80 L. Additional water = 80 – 20 = 60 L.

63. How many bags of grains can be stored in a cuboid granary of 12 m × 6 m × 5 m, if each bag occupies a space of 0.48 m³?

(A) 75

(B) 750

(C) 1500

(D) 375

Correct Answer: (B) 750

Explanation: Volume of granary = 12 × 6 × 5 = 360 m³. Number of bags = 360 / 0.48 = 750.

64. If two dice are thrown simultaneously, the probability of getting a sum of 9 is:

(A) 1/10

(B) 3/10

(C) 1/9

(D) 4/9

Correct Answer: (C) 1/9

Explanation: Favorable outcomes for sum 9: (3,6), (4,5), (5,4), (6,3). Total outcomes = 36. Probability = 4/36 = 1/9.

65. If mode and mean of a set of numbers are 8 and 9 respectively, then the value of median will be:

(A) 8.57

(B) 8.67

(C) 8.97

(D) 9.24

Correct Answer: (B) 8.67

Explanation: Using the empirical formula, Median = (2 × Mean + Mode) / 3 = (2 × 9 + 8) / 3 = 26/3 ≈ 8.67.

66. The area of rhombus having d₁ = 16 cm, d₂ = 12 cm will be:

(A) 16 × 12 cm²

(B) 96 cm²

(C) 8 × 6 cm²

(D) 144 cm²

Correct Answer: (B) 96 cm²

Explanation: Area of rhombus = (d₁ × d₂) / 2 = (16 × 12) / 2 = 96 cm².

67. Select the correct value of (1 + Cos θ)(1 – Cos θ):

(A) Sin²θ

(B) Cos²θ

(C) Tan²θ

(D) Cot²θ

Correct Answer: (A) Sin²θ

Explanation: (1 + Cos θ)(1 – Cos θ) = 1 – Cos²θ = Sin²θ (using the identity 1 – Cos²θ = Sin²θ).

68. What will be the value of P for polynomial x³ + 4x² – Px + 8 if (x – 2) exactly divides it?

(A) 16

(B) 3

(C) 5

(D) 0

Correct Answer: (A) 16

Explanation: If (x – 2) is a factor, then f(2) = 0. So, 2³ + 4(2²) – P(2) + 8 = 8 + 16 – 2P + 8 = 0 → 2P = 32 → P = 16.

69. If a wooden cylinder, cone and hemisphere are of same base and same height, then the ratio of their volumes will be?

(A) 3:1:2

(B) 3:2:1

(C) 1:2:3

(D) 1:3:2

Correct Answer: (A) 3:1:2

Explanation: Volumes: Cylinder = πr²h, Cone = (1/3)πr²h, Hemisphere = (2/3)πr²h. Ratio = 1 : (1/3) : (2/3) = 3:1:2.

70. Giri and Pabbar are the tributaries of one of the following rivers:

(A) Ravi

(B) Yamuna

(C) Satluj

(D) Beas

Correct Answer: (B) Yamuna

Explanation: Giri and Pabbar are tributaries of the Yamuna River in Himachal Pradesh.

71. In which of the following districts is the Chandra Tal lake situated?

(A) Lahaul & Spiti

(B) Kinnaur

(C) Mandi

(D) Chamba

Correct Answer: (A) Lahaul & Spiti

Explanation: Chandra Tal lake is located in the Lahaul & Spiti district.

72. In which of the following places is the veterinary college of Himachal Pradesh situated?

(A) Solan

(B) Palampur

(C) Shimla

(D) Bilaspur

Correct Answer: (B) Palampur

Explanation: The veterinary college is located in Palampur, Himachal Pradesh.

73. Which of the following is an artificial manmade lake in Himachal Pradesh:

(A) Nako

(B) Govind Sagar

(C) Prashar Lake

(D) Chandra Tal

Correct Answer: (B) Govind Sagar

Explanation: Govind Sagar is a man-made lake created by the Bhakra Dam.

74. Who is the present Governor of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Sh. Bandaru Dattatreya

(B) Acharya Devvrat

(C) Sh. Rajender Vishwanath Arlekar

(D) Mrs. Kiran Bedi

Correct Answer: (C) Sh. Rajender Vishwanath Arlekar

Explanation: As of July 2025, Rajender Vishwanath Arlekar is the Governor of Himachal Pradesh.

75. Find out the mismatch between following match pairs:

(A) All India Institute of Medical Sciences in Himachal Pradesh – Bilaspur

(B) World famous handkerchief (Rumal) – Chamba

(C) Choti Kashi – Mandi

(D) Alpine pastures – Una

Correct Answer: (D) Alpine pastures – Una

Explanation: Alpine pastures are found in higher altitudes like Lahaul & Spiti, not in Una.

76. In Una and Hamirpur districts of Himachal Pradesh, which of following hills are found?

(A) Aravalli

(B) Pir Panjal

(C) Shivalik hills

(D) Zaskar

Correct Answer: (C) Shivalik hills

Explanation: Shivalik hills are found in the Una and Hamirpur districts.

77. Which of the following is the state animal of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Brown Bear

(B) Tiger

(C) Cheetah

(D) Snow Leopard

Correct Answer: (D) Snow Leopard

Explanation: The snow leopard is the state animal of Himachal Pradesh.

78. Simbalbara National Park is situated in which of the following districts:

(A) Sirmour

(B) Kullu

(C) Lahaul & Spiti

(D) Shimla

Correct Answer: (A) Sirmour

Explanation: Simbalbara National Park is located in the Sirmour district.

79. In which of the following places are the factories for the extraction of turpentine oil from resin of pine trees situated?

(A) Bilaspur & Hamirpur

(B) Bilaspur & Nahan

(C) Bilaspur & Jahu

(D) Bilaspur & Rajgarh

Correct Answer: (B) Bilaspur & Nahan

Explanation: Turpentine oil factories from pine resin are located in Bilaspur and Nahan.

80. In Himachal Pradesh, maximum rainfall is received due to:

(A) South-West Monsoon

(B) Western Disturbances

(C) North-East Monsoon

(D) Winter Monsoon

Correct Answer: (A) South-West Monsoon

Explanation: The South-West Monsoon is the primary source of rainfall in Himachal Pradesh.

81. In Himachal Pradesh, monsoon rains are received during which months:

(A) June–September

(B) April–July

(C) July–October

(D) October–February

Correct Answer: (A) June–September

Explanation: Monsoon rains in Himachal Pradesh typically occur from June to September.

82. Which one of the following is considered as the best fodder tree?

(A) Biul

(B) Teak

(C) Toona

(D) Semal

Correct Answer: (A) Biul

Explanation: Biul (Grewia optiva) is widely used as a fodder tree in Himachal Pradesh.

83. Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

(A) CO₂

(B) CH₄

(C) CFC

(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation: CO₂, CH₄, and CFCs are all greenhouse gases contributing to global warming.

84. Increase in concentration of harmful gases in atmosphere which cause ailments to living organisms is called……

(A) Air pollution

(B) Climate change

(C) Global warming

(D) Ozone layer depletion

Correct Answer: (A) Air pollution

Explanation: Harmful gases causing health issues are classified as air pollution.

85. Which of the following is the state tree of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Chilgoza Pine

(B) Toona

(C) Deodar

(D) Chirpine

Correct Answer: (C) Deodar

Explanation: Deodar (Cedrus deodara) is the state tree of Himachal Pradesh.

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