1. When water is added to quick lime, the reaction is
A. Endothermic
B. Exothermic
C. Neutral
D. Double displacement
Answer: B. Exothermic
Explanation: The reaction of quick lime (calcium oxide) with water is highly exothermic, releasing a significant amount of heat.
2. Among AlCl₃, Ag, Al(OH)₃, NH₃ which one is a Lewis base?
A. AlCl₃
B. Ag
C. Al(OH)₃
D. NH₃
Answer: D. NH₃
Explanation: NH₃ (ammonia) is a Lewis base because it has a lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom that can be donated.
3. During electrolysis, the reaction at anode is
A. Reduction
B. Oxidation
C. Neutralization
D. Precipitation
Answer: B. Oxidation
Explanation: At the anode during electrolysis, oxidation occurs, which is the loss of electrons.
4. Among Ca, Na, Cl, K which ion will cause hardness in water sample?
A. Na
B. Cl
C. K
D. Ca
Answer: D. Ca
Explanation: Calcium (Ca²⁺) and magnesium (Mg²⁺) ions are the primary causes of hardness in water.
5. Proton is likely to have high
A. Low Hydration energy
B. High Hydration energy
C. High ionization energy
D. Low electron affinity
Answer: B. High Hydration energy
Explanation: A proton (H⁺) is very small and has a high charge density, leading to strong interactions with water molecules and thus high hydration energy.
6. Calcium carbide on hydrolysis forms
A. Methane
B. Ethane
C. Acetylene
D. Benzene
Answer: C. Acetylene
Explanation: Calcium carbide (CaC₂) reacts with water (hydrolysis) to produce acetylene (C₂H₂).
7. Freon-12 is used as a
A. Fuel
B. Solvent
C. Refrigerant
D. Cleaning agent
Answer: C. Refrigerant
Explanation: Freon-12 (dichlorodifluoromethane) was widely used as a refrigerant, though its use has been phased out due to its ozone-depleting properties.
8. Among Nitrogen, Boron, Antimony, Arsenic which element does not show allotropy?
A. Boron
B. Antimony
C. Arsenic
D. Nitrogen
Answer: D. Nitrogen
Explanation: Nitrogen typically exists as a diatomic gas (N₂) and does not exhibit allotropy under normal conditions, unlike boron, antimony, and arsenic which have various allotropic forms.
9. In which of the functional groups-Alcohols, Aldehydes, Alkyl halides, Cyanides, isomerism is not possible?
A. Alcohols
B. Aldehydes
C. Cyanides
D. Alkyl halides
Answer: D. Alkyl halides
Explanation: Isomerism is generally possible in alcohols, aldehydes, and cyanides (e.g., structural, positional, functional). However, the prompt might be implying a specific type of isomerism not easily observed in simple alkyl halides without further functional group complexity. Considering basic structural isomerism, it is possible in alkyl halides. However, among the given options, if a choice must be made for “not possible,” it might be related to more complex types or a specific context not fully provided.
10. The gas which is used for welding purposes is
A. Methane
B. Propane
C. Butane
D. C₂H₂
Answer: D. C₂H₂
Explanation: Acetylene (C₂H₂) is commonly used with oxygen in oxy-acetylene welding due to the high temperature produced by its combustion.
11. Among Carbon monoxide, Ozone, Methane, Water Vapours which gas is not a green house gas?
A. Ozone
B. Methane
C. Water Vapours
D. Carbon monoxide
Answer: D. Carbon monoxide
Explanation: Carbon monoxide is not considered a greenhouse gas, unlike ozone, methane, and water vapor, which trap heat in the atmosphere.
12. Which kind of defects are introduced by doping?
A. Thermal defects
B. Electronic defects
C. Stoichiometric defects
D. Interstitial defects
Answer: B. Electronic defects
Explanation: Doping involves adding impurities to a semiconductor to intentionally introduce electronic defects, thereby changing its electrical conductivity.
13. Among Graphite, Aluminium, Diamond, Silicon which one is an insulator?
A. Graphite
B. Aluminium
C. Silicon
D. Diamond
Answer: D. Diamond
Explanation: Diamond is an excellent electrical insulator due to its strong covalent bonds and lack of free electrons, unlike graphite, aluminum, and silicon which conduct electricity.
14. The half-life period of a reaction is halved as the initial concentration of the reactant is doubled. The order of reaction is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C. 2
Explanation: For a second-order reaction, the half-life is inversely proportional to the initial concentration of the reactant, meaning if the concentration doubles, the half-life halves.
15. In a reaction, catalyst changes
A. Only reaction rate
B. Physically and Qualitatively
C. Product concentration
D. Equilibrium position
Answer: B. Physically and Qualitatively
Explanation: A catalyst changes the rate of a reaction by providing an alternative reaction pathway with a lower activation energy, but remains chemically unchanged.
16. Among Acetate, Oxalate, Cyanide, Ammonia which ligand forms a chelate?
A. Acetate
B. Cyanide
C. Ammonia
D. Oxalate
Answer: D. Oxalate
Explanation: Oxalate (C₂O₄²⁻) is a bidentate ligand, meaning it can form two bonds with a central metal ion, leading to the formation of a chelate ring.
17. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂OCH(CH₃)₂ is
A. Ethyl isopropyl ether
B. 2-Ethoxypropane
C. Isopropoxyethane
D. Diethyl ether
Answer: B. 2-Ethoxypropane
Explanation: Following IUPAC nomenclature rules, the longest carbon chain with the ether group is propane, and the ethoxy group is at the 2-position, hence 2-ethoxypropane.
18. Among 2-Bromobutane; 1-Bromobutane; 2-Bromopropane; 2-Bromopropane-2-ol which molecule is chiral in nature?
A. 1-Bromobutane
B. 2-Bromopropane
C. 2-Bromopropane-2-ol
D. 2-Bromobutane
Answer: D. 2-Bromobutane
Explanation: 2-Bromobutane is chiral because the carbon atom bonded to the bromine is also bonded to four different groups (H, CH₃, C₂H₅, Br), making it a chiral center.
19. Among Methyl Alcohol, Glycol, Nitrophenol, Ethyl Alcohol which compound can be used as antifreeze in automobile radiators?
A. Methyl Alcohol
B. Nitrophenol
C. Ethyl Alcohol
D. Glycol
Answer: D. Glycol
Explanation: Ethylene glycol (commonly known as glycol) is widely used as an antifreeze because it significantly lowers the freezing point of water.
20. Among Teflon, Natural Rubber, Styrene, Nylon-66 which polymer is prepared by condensation polymerization?
A. Teflon
B. Natural Rubber
C. Styrene
D. Nylon-66
Answer: D. Nylon-66
Explanation: Nylon-66 is a polyamide synthesized by condensation polymerization between hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid, with the elimination of water molecules.
21. Which system of education was propounded by Mahatma Gandhi?
A. Teaching by activities
B. Teaching through music
C. Teaching through meditation
D. All of the above
Answer: A. Teaching by activities
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi propounded the ‘Basic Education’ or ‘Nai Talim’ system, emphasizing learning through practical activities and crafts.
22. Education of a child really begins
A. Once he takes birth
B. From school
C. From kindergarten
D. From nursery
Answer: A. Once he takes birth
Explanation: The process of education is often considered to begin right from birth, encompassing all experiences and learning.
23. The concept of sanskritisation was first used by
A. M.N. Srinivas
B. S.C. Dube
C. Andre Beteille
D. G.S. Ghurye
Answer: A. M.N. Srinivas
Explanation: M.N. Srinivas, a renowned Indian sociologist, introduced the concept of ‘Sanskritisation’ to describe social mobility in India.
24. Parental indifferences to the child’s behavior is called
A. Over-protection
B. Withdrawal
C. Indulgence
D. Neglect
Answer: B. Withdrawal
Explanation: Parental indifference to a child’s behavior can be termed as withdrawal, indicating a lack of engagement or response.
25. The IQ score lies between 99-109 is considered as
A. Below Average
B. Average
C. Above Average
D. Superior
Answer: B. Average
Explanation: An IQ score in the range of 90-109 is generally considered to be within the average intelligence range.
26. Motivation cannot be
A. Observed directly
B. Inferred
C. Experienced
D. Measured
Answer: A. Observed directly
Explanation: Motivation is an internal state and cannot be directly observed, but its presence can be inferred from an individual’s behavior.
27. Which methods is most suitable for learning disabled children?
A. Lecture method
B. Discussion method
C. Behavior guidance method
D. Rote learning
Answer: C. Behavior guidance method
Explanation: Behavior guidance methods, which provide structured support and feedback, are often suitable for children with learning disabilities.
28. In a projective test of personality, the stimulus must be
A. Structured
B. Ambiguous
C. Clear
D. Specific
Answer: B. Ambiguous
Explanation: Projective tests use ambiguous stimuli to elicit unconscious thoughts and feelings, allowing individuals to project their personality onto them.
29. The first Ph.D. in education in India, was awarded by
A. Delhi University
B. Bombay University
C. Calcutta University
D. Madras University
Answer: B. Bombay University
Explanation: The first Ph.D. in education in India was awarded by Bombay University.
30. Among Interview, Observation, Questionnaire, Self Report which tool will provide more valid information?
A. Questionnaire
B. Self Report
C. Observation
D. Interview
Answer: C. Observation
Explanation: Observation, when done systematically and carefully, can often provide more valid and objective information compared to self-report methods which can be influenced by bias.
31. The National Policy on Education, 1986 envisages education as
A. A Local Programme
B. A State Programme
C. A National Programme
D. An International Programme
Answer: C. A National Programme
Explanation: The National Policy on Education (NPE) of 1986 aimed to establish a national system of education.
32. A teacher in the class is
A. A dictator
B. A friend
C. A leader and guide of the group
D. An authoritarian figure
Answer: C. A leader and guide of the group
Explanation: A teacher’s role in the classroom is primarily to lead and guide students in their learning process.
33. The teacher should
A. Maintain strict discipline
B. Focus only on syllabus completion
C. Do whatever is needed to promote welfare of students
D. Follow the curriculum rigidly
Answer: C. Do whatever is needed to promote welfare of students
Explanation: The primary responsibility of a teacher is to ensure the overall welfare and holistic development of their students.
34. Wood’s dispatch contains how many paragraphs.
A. 50
B. 75
C. 100
D. 125
Answer: C. 100
Explanation: Wood’s Despatch of 1854, a significant document in Indian education history, contained 100 paragraphs.
35. Educational supervision helps in
A. Only Diagnosis
B. Only Remedification
C. Only Encouragement
D. Diagnosis, Remedification & Encouragement
Answer: D. Diagnosis, Remedification & Encouragement
Explanation: Educational supervision involves diagnosing areas for improvement, providing remediation, and encouraging positive practices in the educational setting.
36. Micro-teaching is the
A. Full-scale teaching
B. Scaled down teaching
C. Online teaching
D. Group teaching
Answer: B. Scaled down teaching
Explanation: Micro-teaching is a training technique that involves teaching a short lesson to a small group of students, focusing on specific teaching skills.
37. In which year, IGNOU was set up?
A. 1975
B. 1980
C. 1985
D. 1990
Answer: C. 1985
Explanation: The Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established in 1985.
38. Who became the first disciple of Mahavira?
A. Gosala Maskariputra
B. Jamali
C. Indrabhuti Gautama
D. Sthulabhadra
Answer: B. Jamali
Explanation: Jamali was the son-in-law of Mahavira and became his first disciple before eventually parting ways.
39. Who among the thinkers believed in the Vedanta Philosophy?
A. Swami Dayananda Saraswati
B. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C. Vivekananda
D. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Answer: C. Vivekananda
Explanation: Swami Vivekananda was a key figure in the introduction of the Indian philosophies of Vedanta and Yoga to the Western world.
40. Who wrote the book ‘School and Society’?
A. Jean Piaget
B. John Dewey
C. Lev Vygotsky
D. B.F. Skinner
Answer: B. John Dewey
Explanation: ‘School and Society’ is a seminal work by American philosopher and educator John Dewey, published in 1899.
41. Who followed the Theraveda form of Buddhism?
A. Burmese
B. Chinese
C. Tibetan
D. Japanese
Answer: A. Burmese
Explanation: Theravada Buddhism is primarily practiced in Sri Lanka and Southeast Asian countries like Myanmar (Burma), Thailand, Laos, and Cambodia.
42. Vijayalaya was a feudatory of the
A. Pandyas
B. Cheras
C. Pallavas
D. Cholas
Answer: C. Pallavas
Explanation: Vijayalaya, the founder of the Imperial Chola dynasty, was initially a feudatory of the Pallavas.
43. Alauddin Khilji captured the throne after securing fabulous wealth from
A. Delhi
B. Chittor
C. Devagiri
D. Gujarat
Answer: C. Devagiri
Explanation: Alauddin Khilji amassed significant wealth from his Deccan campaign, particularly from Devagiri, which helped him usurp the Delhi Sultanate throne.
44. The Mughal emperor, who drove away the Portuguese from Hugli, the premier port of Bengal was
A. Akbar
B. Jahangir
C. Shah Jahan
D. Aurangzeb
Answer: C. Shah Jahan
Explanation: Shah Jahan ordered the expulsion of the Portuguese from Hugli in 1632 due to their unauthorized activities and religious intolerance.
45. Who took over the administration in Bengal after Robert Clive?
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Curzon
C. Warren Hastings
D. Lord William Bentinck
Answer: C. Warren Hastings
Explanation: Warren Hastings succeeded Robert Clive and became the first Governor-General of Bengal, overseeing its administration.
46. Who was arrested in the Kanpur conspiracy case?
A. Bhagat Singh
B. S.A. Dange
C. Subhas Chandra Bose
D. Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: B. S.A. Dange
Explanation: S.A. Dange, a prominent communist leader, was among those arrested in the Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case of 1924.
47. The first meeting of Non-Aligned member countries was attended by how many countries?
A. 15
B. 25
C. 35
D. 45
Answer: B. 25
Explanation: The first summit of the Non-Aligned Movement was held in Belgrade in 1961, attended by 25 countries.
48. The second longest river in India that flows towards east is
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Mahanadi
D. Narmada
Answer: A. Godavari
Explanation: The Godavari River is the second-longest river in India and flows eastward, emptying into the Bay of Bengal.
49. Which ranges acts as a natural barrier between India and Tibet?
A. Western Ghats
B. Eastern Ghats
C. Himalayas
D. Aravalli Range
Answer: C. Himalayas
Explanation: The Himalayan ranges form a formidable natural barrier between India and Tibet.
50. Gorakhanath in the Girnar Hills is the highest point in
A. Rajasthan
B. Gujarat
C. Maharashtra
D. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: B. Kathiawar (within Gujarat)
Explanation: Gorakhnath Peak is the highest point in the Girnar mountain range, which is located in the Kathiawar peninsula of Gujarat.
51. Which river makes the Gersoppa Falls?
A. Kaveri
B. Sharavati
C. Godavari
D. Krishna
Answer: B. Sharavati
Explanation: The Gersoppa Falls, also known as Jog Falls, are created by the Sharavati River in Karnataka.
52. Selvas type of vegetation is found in
A. Deserts
B. Polar regions
C. Equatorial regions
D. Temperate regions
Answer: C. Equatorial regions
Explanation: Selvas refers to the dense tropical rainforests found in the equatorial regions, particularly the Amazon basin.
53. The largest producer of petroleum in India is
A. Assam
B. Gujarat
C. Mumbai High
D. Rajasthan
Answer: C. Mumbai High
Explanation: Mumbai High (Bombay High) offshore oilfield is the largest producer of petroleum in India.
54. In India, high quality basmati rice is mainly grown in
A. Kerala
B. West Bengal
C. Punjab and Haryana
D. Dehradun
Answer: D. Dehradun (referring to the region/foothills of Uttarakhand)
Explanation: While Basmati rice is grown in several regions of northern India, Dehradun and the surrounding areas are historically known for high-quality Basmati.
55. Khetri in Junjhunu district of Rajasthan is an important producing centre of
A. Iron
B. Coal
C. Copper
D. Gold
Answer: C. Copper
Explanation: Khetri is famous for its copper mines and is a significant copper-producing region in India.
56. The Federal System with strong Centre has been borrowed by the Indian constitution from
A. USA
B. Canada
C. UK
D. Australia
Answer: B. Canada
Explanation: India’s federal system, characterized by a strong central government, is largely inspired by the Canadian constitution.
57. Which schedule of the Indian constitution lists the names of states and specifies their territories?
A. Second
B. First
C. Third
D. Fourth
Answer: B. First
Explanation: The First Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the list of states and union territories and their respective territories.
58. Who became Prime Minister of India without becoming a Union Cabinet Minister?
A. Indira Gandhi
B. Morarji Desai
C. H.D. Deve Gowda
D. P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer: C. H.D. Deve Gowda
Explanation: H.D. Deve Gowda became Prime Minister directly from being the Chief Minister of Karnataka, without previously serving as a Union Cabinet Minister.
59. In which house of the parliament, the presiding officer is not a member of the house?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Vidhan Sabha
D. Both A and B
Answer: B. Rajya Sabha
Explanation: The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha but is not a member of the house.
60. The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by the
A. Prime Minister
B. Chief Minister
C. President on the advice of Governor of the State concerned and the Chief Justice of India
D. Governor
Answer: C. President on the advice of Governor of the State concerned and the Chief Justice of India
Explanation: The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India and the Governor of the concerned state.
61. A Panchayat Samiti at block level is
A. An advisory body
B. An administrative authority
C. A consultative committee
D. A financial institution
Answer: B. An administrative authority
Explanation: A Panchayat Samiti at the block level serves as an administrative and executive body for local self-governance.
62. Which committee was set up to review the concept of the poverty line?
A. Lakdawala Committee
B. Tendulkar Committee
C. Rangarajan Committee
D. Alagh Committee
Answer: B. Tendulkar Committee
Explanation: The Suresh Tendulkar Committee was constituted to review the methodology for poverty estimation in India.
63. NABARD does not provide refinance to
A. Commercial Banks
B. Regional Rural Banks
C. State Cooperative Banks
D. Export-Import Banks
Answer: D. Export-Import Banks
Explanation: NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) provides refinance to institutions involved in agricultural and rural development, but not typically to Export-Import Banks.
64. Global Competitiveness Report is released by which organization?
A. World Bank
B. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C. World Economic Forum
D. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Answer: C. World Economic Forum
Explanation: The Global Competitiveness Report, which assesses factors driving productivity and prosperity, is published by the World Economic Forum.
65. Central Seed Testing and Referral Laboratory is located in
A. New Delhi
B. Hyderabad
C. Varanasi
D. Bengaluru
Answer: C. Varanasi
Explanation: The Central Seed Testing and Referral Laboratory (CSTRL) is located in Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh.
66. Among Algeria, Tunisia, Morocco which country borders with the Mediterranean sea?
A. Only Algeria
B. Only Tunisia
C. Only Morocco
D. All of these
Answer: D. All of these
Explanation: Algeria, Tunisia, and Morocco are all North African countries with coastlines along the Mediterranean Sea.
67. Which is the largest fresh water lake in the world?
A. Lake Victoria
B. Lake Baikal
C. Lake Superior
D. Caspian Sea
Answer: C. Lake Superior
Explanation: Lake Superior, located in North America, is the largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area.
68. The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of
A. Equatorial Climate
B. Mediterranean Climate
C. Monsoon Climate
D. Desert Climate
Answer: C. Monsoon Climate
Explanation: The seasonal reversal of winds, driven by differential heating of land and sea, is the defining characteristic of a monsoon climate.
69. Nights and days in equatorial region are
A. Longer nights, shorter days
B. Shorter nights, longer days
C. Unequal
D. Equal
Answer: D. Equal
Explanation: Due to the Earth’s spherical shape and tilt, regions near the equator experience approximately equal lengths of day and night throughout the year.
70. A man said to a woman, “The only son of your brother is the brother of my wife”. How is that woman related to the wife of that man?
A. Mother
B. Sister
C. Aunt
D. Sister-in-law
Answer: C. Aunt
Explanation: The woman’s brother’s only son is her nephew. If this nephew is the brother of the man’s wife, then the woman is the paternal aunt of the man’s wife.
71. Pratap starts from school and walks 7 km towards East. He takes a left and walks 4 km, then takes a right and walks 2 km again takes a right and walks 3 km. Which direction is he facing now?
A. North
B. South
C. East
D. West
Answer: B. South
Explanation: After the last right turn, Pratap would be facing South.
72. India’s first National Sports University will come up in which state?
A. Haryana
B. Manipur
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Punjab
Answer: B. Manipur
Explanation: India’s first National Sports University is being established in Manipur.
73. Who has been recently appointed as the Chairman of the Press Council of India?
A. A.K. Sikri
B. Ranjan Gogoi
C. C. K. Prasad
D. Dipak Misra
Answer: C. C. K. Prasad
Explanation: Justice C. K. Prasad was recently appointed as the Chairman of the Press Council of India.
74. Which country hosted the 2018 Global Malaria Summit?
A. India
B. United States
C. United Kingdom
D. South Africa
Answer: C. United Kingdom
Explanation: The 2018 Global Malaria Summit was hosted by the United Kingdom in London.
75. Who has won the best actor award at the 2018 Dadasaheb Phalke awards?
A. Shah Rukh Khan
B. Salman Khan
C. Akshay Kumar
D. Ranveer Singh
Answer: C. Akshay Kumar
Explanation: Akshay Kumar won the Best Actor award at the 2018 Dadasaheb Phalke awards.
76. Which festival of H.P. is famous as Dholru in Chamba?
A. Lohri
B. Shivratri
C. Chaitti
D. Holi
Answer: C. Chaitti
Explanation: The Chaitti festival, celebrated in Himachal Pradesh, is known as Dholru in the Chamba district.
77. Himachal Pradesh was under the administration of Chief Commissioner uptill
A. 1948
B. 1951
C. 1956
D. 1966
Answer: B. 1951
Explanation: Himachal Pradesh remained a Chief Commissioner’s Province until 1951 when it became a Part C state.
78. Koldam dam project is undertaken by
A. NHPC
B. SJVN
C. NTPC
D. BBMB
Answer: C. NTPC
Explanation: The Koldam Hydro Electric Power Project is undertaken by NTPC (National Thermal Power Corporation).
79. The hot spring of Tatapani is situated in which districts of H.P.?
A. Kullu
B. Shimla
C. Mandi
D. Kangra
Answer: C. Mandi
Explanation: The famous hot spring of Tatapani is located in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.
80. He was honourably acquitted……… the charge.
A. From
B. Of
C. With
D. By
Answer: B. Of
Explanation: The correct preposition to use with ‘acquitted’ when referring to a charge is ‘of’.
81. Meaning of the idiom ‘Tied to the apron string of’ is
A. To be independent
B. To be dominated by
C. To be supportive of
D. To be equal to
Answer: B. To be dominated by
Explanation: The idiom ‘tied to the apron strings of’ means to be excessively dependent on or controlled by someone, often a mother.
82. Antonym of the word ‘Refinement’ is
A. Elegance
B. Cultivation
C. Vulgarity
D. Sophistication
Answer: C. Vulgarity
Explanation: The antonym of refinement (elegance, sophistication) is vulgarity (lack of good taste or manners).
83. Main cause of extinction of species from tropics is
A. Pollution
B. Climate Change
C. Deforestation
D. Overhunting
Answer: C. Deforestation
Explanation: Deforestation is a major cause of species extinction in tropical regions due to habitat loss and fragmentation.
84. A phylum common to unicellular animals and plants is
A. Monera
B. Fungi
C. Protista
D. Plantae
Answer: C. Protista
Explanation: The kingdom Protista includes diverse eukaryotic organisms that are primarily unicellular, encompassing both animal-like protozoa and plant-like algae.
85. If the diploid number of a flowering plant is 36. What would be the chromosome number in its endosperm?
A. 18
B. 36
C. 54
D. 72
Answer: C. 54
Explanation: The endosperm in flowering plants is triploid (3n). If the diploid number (2n) is 36, then the haploid number (n) is 18, and the triploid endosperm would have 3 * 18 = 54 chromosomes.
86. Protein rich alga is
A. Chlorella
B. Spirulina
C. Ulva
D. Nostoc
Answer: B. Spirulina
Explanation: Spirulina is a popular blue-green alga known for its high protein content and is often used as a dietary supplement.
87. The largest antherozoids are found in
A. Ferns
B. Mosses
C. Cycas
D. Pinus
Answer: C. Cycas
Explanation: Cycas, a genus of cycads, is known to have some of the largest motile male gametes (antherozoids) in the plant kingdom.
88. ………………… is an unicellular sac-fungus.
A. Penicillium
B. Agaricus
C. Saccharomyces
D. Aspergillus
Answer: C. Saccharomyces
Explanation: Saccharomyces (brewer’s yeast) is a well-known example of a unicellular sac-fungus, belonging to the Ascomycota.
89. Meiosis takes place in
A. Somatic cells
B. Gametes
C. Meiocyte
D. Spores
Answer: C. Meiocyte
Explanation: Meiosis, the process of cell division that reduces the number of chromosomes by half, occurs in specialized cells called meiocytes (germline cells) to produce gametes or spores.
90. Turbellarians are free living
A. Roundworms
B. Flatworms
C. Segmented worms
D. Leeches
Answer: B. Flatworms
Explanation: Turbellarians are a class of free-living flatworms, commonly found in marine and freshwater environments.
91. A poisonous lizard is
A. Chameleon
B. Gecko
C. Heloderma
D. Iguana
Answer: C. Heloderma
Explanation: Heloderma (Gila monster and Mexican beaded lizard) are among the few venomous lizards.
92. Gill cover is absent in
A. Bony fishes
B. Cartilaginous fishes
C. Jawless fishes
D. Lungfishes
Answer: B. Cartilaginous fishes
Explanation: Cartilaginous fishes (Chondrichthyes) like sharks and rays lack a bony operculum (gill cover) and have separate gill slits.
93. ………………… is an egg-laying mammal.
A. Kangaroo
B. Bat
C. Platypus
D. Whale
Answer: C. Platypus
Explanation: The platypus (Ornithorhynchus anatinus) is a monotreme, a unique mammal that lays eggs.
94. Haemocoel is found in
A. Annelids
B. Molluscs
C. Arthropods
D. Echinoderms
Answer: C. Arthropods
Explanation: Haemocoel is the primary body cavity of arthropods, containing circulating hemolymph, which functions as blood.
95. Polyp phase is absent in
A. Hydra
B. Aurelia
C. Obelia
D. Sea Anemone
Answer: B. Aurelia
Explanation: While most cnidarians have both polyp and medusa stages, the Medusa (jellyfish) is the dominant and often the only visible stage in Aurelia.
96. A waxy substance secreted by honey bee to repair combs is called
A. Honey
B. Pollen
C. Propolis
D. Royal Jelly
Answer: C. Propolis
Explanation: Propolis is a resinous mixture that honey bees collect from tree buds, sap flows, or other botanical sources, and use to seal and repair their hives.
97. Tube feet are locomotory organs of
A. Annelids
B. Molluscs
C. Arthropods
D. Starfish
Answer: D. Starfish
Explanation: Tube feet are small, suction-cup-like appendages that are part of the water vascular system of echinoderms, such as starfish, and are used for locomotion and feeding.
98. Among Physalia, Typanosoma, Termite which one shows polymorphism?
A. Trypanosoma
B. Termite
C. Physalia
D. All of these
Answer: C. Physalia
Explanation: Physalia (Portuguese Man o’ War) exhibits extreme polymorphism, being a colony of specialized polyps and medusae, each with distinct functions.
99. In which phylum, the body is segmented?
A. Porifera
B. Cnidaria
C. Annelida
D. Mollusca
Answer: C. Annelida
Explanation: Annelida, which includes earthworms and leeches, is characterized by a segmented body plan.
100. Among Balaenoptera, Delphinus, Pteropus, Ornithorhynchus which one is an oviparous mammal?
A. Balaenoptera
B. Delphinus
C. Pteropus
D. Ornithorhynchus
Answer: D. Ornithorhynchus
Explanation: Ornithorhynchus (the platypus) is an oviparous mammal, meaning it lays eggs, distinguishing it from most other mammals.
101. Among Columbia, Neophron, Struthio, Corvus which one is a flightless bird?
A. Columbia
B. Neophron
C. Corvus
D. Struthio
Answer: D. Struthio
Explanation: Struthio (ostrich) is a well-known flightless bird, while Columbia (pigeon), Neophron (vulture), and Corvus (crow) are capable of flight.
102. Replum is present in the ovary of flower of
A. Pea
B. Mustard
C. Hibiscus
D. Lily
Answer: B. Mustard
Explanation: Replum is a false septum or partition found in the ovary of plants belonging to the Brassicaceae family, such as mustard.
103. Periderm is formed by
A. Vascular cambium
B. Phellogen
C. Apical meristem
D. Intercalary meristem
Answer: B. Phellogen
Explanation: Periderm, which replaces the epidermis as the protective outer layer in woody plants, is formed by the activity of the phellogen (cork cambium).
104. Epiblema is characteristic of
A. Dicot stems
B. Monocot roots
C. Dicot leaves
D. Monocot stems
Answer: B. Monocot roots
Explanation: Epiblema is the outermost protective layer of cells in monocot roots, replacing the epidermis found in other plant parts.
105. Jute fibres are obtained from
A. Secondary xylem
B. Secondary phloem
C. Primary xylem
D. Primary phloem
Answer: B. Secondary phloem
Explanation: Jute fibers are bast fibers, which are obtained from the secondary phloem of the jute plant stem.
106. Mast cells secrete
A. Histamine
B. Heparin
C. Serotonin
D. All of these
Answer: D. All of these
Explanation: Mast cells are immune cells that secrete various substances, including histamine, heparin, and serotonin, which play roles in allergic reactions and inflammation.
107. Compound eyes are found in
A. Earthworm
B. Snail
C. Cockroach
D. Fish
Answer: C. Cockroach
Explanation: Compound eyes, composed of multiple ommatidia, are characteristic visual organs found in insects like cockroaches and other arthropods.
108. Which is the simplest amino acid?
A. Alanine
B. Glycine
C. Valine
D. Leucine
Answer: B. Glycine
Explanation: Glycine is the simplest amino acid, characterized by a hydrogen atom as its side chain.
109. Quantasomes are present in
A. Stroma
B. Grana
C. Cytoplasm
D. Nucleus
Answer: B. Grana
Explanation: Quantasomes are photosynthetic units found within the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, specifically in the grana.
110. A cell swells up when kept in
A. Isotonic solution
B. Hypertonic solution
C. Hypotonic solution
D. Saturated solution
Answer: C. Hypotonic solution
Explanation: A cell will swell up when placed in a hypotonic solution because water moves into the cell by osmosis, due to a higher solute concentration inside the cell.
111. Cell theory is not applicable for
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Algae
D. Virus
Answer: D. Virus
Explanation: Viruses are not considered true cells as they lack cellular organelles and cannot carry out metabolic processes independently, hence cell theory does not fully apply to them.
112. The enzyme that cuts DNA is
A. Ligase
B. Polymerase
C. Restriction Endonuclease
D. Helicase
Answer: C. Restriction Endonuclease
Explanation: Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that recognize specific DNA sequences and cut the DNA at or near those recognition sites.
113. A plant cell attains turgidity due to
A. Plasmolysis
B. Exosmosis
C. Endosmosis
D. Dehydration
Answer: C. Endosmosis
Explanation: A plant cell attains turgidity when water enters the cell by endosmosis, causing the cell membrane to press against the cell wall.
114. The most important factor in regulating transpiration is
A. Humidity
B. Temperature
C. Light
D. Wind speed
Answer: C. Light
Explanation: Light is the most important factor regulating transpiration because it influences stomatal opening, which controls the rate of water vapor release.
115. Boron in green plants assists in
A. Photosynthesis
B. Respiration
C. Sugar Transport
D. Nitrogen fixation
Answer: C. Sugar Transport
Explanation: Boron plays a crucial role in plants, particularly in the translocation of sugars and the formation of cell walls.
116. Denitrification is carried out by
A. Nitrifying bacteria
B. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
C. Heterotrophic bacteria like Pseudomonas
D. Fungi
Answer: C. Heterotrophic bacteria like Pseudomonas
Explanation: Denitrification, the process of converting nitrates back into nitrogen gas, is primarily carried out by anaerobic heterotrophic bacteria such as Pseudomonas.
117. Kranz anatomy is observed in
A. C₃ plants
B. C₄ plants
C. CAM plants
D. All plants
Answer: B. C₄ plants
Explanation: Kranz anatomy is a specialized leaf anatomy found in C₄ plants, characterized by a wreath-like arrangement of bundle sheath cells around the vascular bundles.
118. Among Phosphoglycolate, NADPH, Oxaloacetate, Sugar which one is formed during photorespiration?
A. NADPH
B. Oxaloacetate
C. Sugar
D. Phosphoglycolate
Answer: D. Phosphoglycolate
Explanation: Phosphoglycolate is a key product formed during photorespiration when the enzyme RuBisCO oxygenates RuBP instead of carboxylating it.
119. The essential element needed for water splitting in photosynthesis leading to O₂ evolution is
A. Magnesium
B. Manganese
C. Iron
D. Copper
Answer: B. Manganese
Explanation: Manganese is an essential micronutrient for plants and plays a vital role in the water-splitting complex of photosystem II, which is responsible for oxygen evolution during photosynthesis.
120. The site of glycolysis is
A. Mitochondria
B. Cytoplasm
C. Chloroplast
D. Nucleus
Answer: B. Cytoplasm
Explanation: Glycolysis, the metabolic pathway that converts glucose into pyruvate, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell.
121. Induction of flowering by low temperature treatment is called
A. Photoperiodism
B. Stratification
C. Vernalization
D. Scarification
Answer: C. Vernalization
Explanation: Vernalization is the process of inducing flowering in plants by exposure to prolonged cold, often during the seedling stage.—–122. Gibberellin was first discovered from
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Viruses
Answer: B. Fungi
Explanation: Gibberellins were first discovered in a fungus, Gibberella fujikuroi, which causes “foolish seedling disease” in rice.—–123. Cholecystokinin in human being stimulates
A. Gastric glands
B. Pancreas
C. Gall bladder
D. Liver
Answer: C. Gall bladder
Explanation: Cholecystokinin (CCK) is a hormone that primarily stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder to release bile and the pancreas to secrete digestive enzymes.—–124. Among mammals, a significant role in the digestion of milk is played by
A. Amylase
B. Lipase
C. Rennin
D. Pepsin
Answer: C. Rennin
Explanation: Rennin (chymosin) is an enzyme found in the stomachs of young mammals that curdles milk, aiding its digestion.—–125. Glisson’s capsule in human being is associated with
A. Kidney
B. Spleen
C. Liver
D. Pancreas
Answer: C. Liver
Explanation: Glisson’s capsule is a fibrous capsule that covers the surface of the liver and encloses the hepatic artery, portal vein, and bile ducts.—–126. The alveoli of lungs in human being are lined by
A. Columnar epithelium
B. Cuboidal epithelium
C. Squamous epithelium
D. Ciliated epithelium
Answer: C. Squamous epithelium
Explanation: The alveoli are lined by a thin layer of simple squamous epithelium (Type I alveolar cells), which facilitates efficient gas exchange.—–127. Lymphoid tissue in human is found in
A. Stomach
B. Small intestine
C. Thymus
D. Brain
Answer: C. Thymus
Explanation: The thymus is a primary lymphoid organ where T lymphocytes mature. Lymphoid tissue is also found in other organs like the spleen, lymph nodes, and tonsils.—–128. Erythropoeitin in human is secreted from
A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Bone marrow
Answer: C. Kidney
Explanation: Erythropoietin (EPO) is a hormone primarily secreted by the kidneys in response to hypoxia, stimulating red blood cell production in the bone marrow.—–129. Yellow colour of human urine is due to
A. Bilirubin
B. Uric acid
C. Urea
D. Urochrome
Answer: D. Urochrome
Explanation: The yellow color of urine is primarily due to urochrome, a pigment produced from the breakdown of hemoglobin.—–130. Bidder’s canal is present in
A. Kidney of fish
B. Kidney of frog
C. Testis of rabbit
D. Ovary of human
Answer: B. Kidney of frog
Explanation: Bidder’s canal is a male reproductive duct found in the kidneys of male frogs, which collects sperm from the testes and transports it to the urinogenital duct.
131. Glenoid cavity in human is found in
A. Skull
B. Pelvic girdle
C. Pectoral girdle
D. Vertebral column
Answer: C. Pectoral girdle
Explanation: The glenoid cavity is a part of the scapula (shoulder blade) and articulates with the head of the humerus to form the shoulder joint.—–
132. Arbor vitae is a part of
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Spinal cord
Answer: B. Cerebellum
Explanation: Arbor vitae is the treelike pattern of white matter in the cerebellum.—–
133. Among Cretinism, Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Thalassemia which one is not a hereditary disease?
A. Haemophilia
B. Cystic fibrosis
C. Thalassemia
D. Cretinism
Answer: D. Cretinism
Explanation: Cretinism is caused by severe thyroid hormone deficiency, often due to iodine deficiency, and is not a hereditary disease.—–
134. Which hormone is modified amino acid?
A. Insulin
B. Thyroxine
C. Epinephrine
D. Glucagon
Answer: C. Epinephrine
Explanation: Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a catecholamine, which is a modified amino acid.—–
135. The fleshy edible part of an apple is
A. Pericarp
B. Endocarp
C. Thalamus
D. Epicarp
Answer: C. Thalamus
Explanation: The fleshy, edible part of an apple is the receptacle or thalamus, which develops along with the ovary.—–
136. Animals giving birth to young ones are called
A. Oviparous
B. Ovoviviparous and Viviparous
C. Asexual
D. Parthenogenetic
Answer: B. Ovoviviparous and Viviparous
Explanation: Viviparous animals give birth to live young that developed inside the mother’s body, while ovoviviparous animals produce young by means of eggs that are hatched within the body.—–
137. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in
A. Microspores
B. Pollen grains
C. Microspore mother cells
D. Tapetum cells
Answer: C. Microspore mother cells
Explanation: Meiosis occurs in the microspore mother cells (pollen mother cells) to produce haploid microspores.—-
138. Heterotrophic fungi can live as
A. Saprophytes
B. Symbionts
C. Parasites
D. Saprophytes, Symbionts, Parasites
Answer: D. Saprophytes, Symbionts, Parasites
Explanation: Heterotrophic fungi obtain nutrients by being saprophytes (decomposers), symbionts (in mutualistic relationships), or parasites (living on other organisms).—–
139. A haploid plant produces male or female gametes by
A. Meiosis
B. Mitosis
C. Fertilization
D. Germination
Answer: B. Mitosis
Explanation: Haploid plants produce gametes through mitosis, as they already have a single set of chromosomes.—–
140. The entry of pollen tube into the ovule through micropyle is called
A. Chalazogamy
B. Mesogamy
C. Porogamy
D. Apogamy
Answer: C. Porogamy
Explanation: Porogamy is the most common mode of pollen tube entry into the ovule, where it enters through the micropyle.
141. Among Seminal vesicle, Ampulla, Prostate, Bulbourethral gland which one is not a male accessory gland?
A. Seminal vesicle
B. Ampulla
C. Prostate
D. Bulbourethral gland
Answer: B. Ampulla
Explanation: The ampulla (of the vas deferens) is a dilated terminal part of the vas deferens, not an accessory gland itself, whereas the seminal vesicle, prostate, and bulbourethral glands are male accessory glands.
142. Graffian follicles are found in
A. Testes of mammals
B. Ovaries of mammals
C. Kidney of frog
D. Liver of human
Answer: B. Ovaries of mammals
Explanation: Graafian follicles are mature ovarian follicles found in the ovaries of mammals, containing the developing ovum.
143. Oral contraceptives are prescribed in females to check
A. Fertilization
B. Implantation
C. Ovulation
D. Coitus
Answer: C. Ovulation
Explanation: Oral contraceptives primarily work by inhibiting ovulation, thus preventing the release of an egg from the ovary.
144. Gynaecomastia is a common feature seen in
A. Down’s syndrome
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
D. Patau’s syndrome
Answer: C. Klinefelter’s syndrome
Explanation: Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of breast tissue in males, is a common feature of Klinefelter’s syndrome, a chromosomal disorder.
145. Antibodies resemble with which shape?
A. T
B. Y
C. X
D. Z
Answer: B. Y
Explanation: Antibodies are typically Y-shaped proteins that play a crucial role in the immune system.
146. If the base sequence of a codon in mRNA is 5′-AUG-3′, the sequence of t-RNA pairing with it must be
A. 3′-UAC-5′
B. 5′-CAU-3′
C. 3′-GUA-5′
D. 5′-AUG-3′
Answer: B. 5′-CAU-3′
Explanation: The tRNA anticodon sequence is complementary and antiparallel to the mRNA codon, so for 5′-AUG-3′, the tRNA anticodon would be 3′-UAC-5′ (or written as 5′-CAU-3′ for consistency with 5′ to 3′ direction).
147. The coding segment of DNA is
A. Intron
B. Exon
C. Promoter
D. Terminator
Answer: B. Exon
Explanation: Exons are the coding segments of a gene that are ultimately expressed as proteins, while introns are non-coding regions.
148. Initiating force of evolution is
A. Natural selection
B. Mutation
C. Variation
D. Genetic drift
Answer: C. Variation
Explanation: Variation within a population is the raw material upon which evolutionary forces like natural selection act, making it the initiating force.
149. ………………… is a living fossil.
A. Homo sapiens
B. Cycas
C. Rice
D. Monkey
Answer: B. Cycas
Explanation: Cycas is often referred to as a living fossil because it belongs to an ancient group of plants (cycads) that have changed little over millions of years.
150. AIDS is due to
A. Bacterial infection
B. Fungal infection
C. Viral infection
D. Destruction of Helper T-cells
Answer: D. Destruction of Helper T-cells
Explanation: AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which primarily targets and destroys Helper T-cells, severely impairing the immune system.
151. Cryopreservation is done at temperature
A. 0°C
B. -80°C
C. -196°C
D. -10°C
Answer: C. -196°C
Explanation: Cryopreservation is typically performed at extremely low temperatures, most commonly using liquid nitrogen at -196°C, to preserve biological materials.
152. Hybrid vigour is due to
A. Homozygosity
B. Heterozygosity
C. Inbreeding
D. Mutation
Answer: B. Heterozygosity
Explanation: Hybrid vigour, or heterosis, is the increased strength and performance of hybrid organisms, often attributed to increased heterozygosity masking deleterious recessive alleles.
153. In transgenics expression of transgene in target tissue is determined by
A. Repressor
B. Enhancer
C. Promoter
D. Activator
Answer: C. Promoter
Explanation: The promoter sequence in a transgene determines when and where (in which tissue) the gene will be expressed.
154. An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found in which ecosystem?
A. Forest
B. Grassland
C. Marine
D. Pond
Answer: C. Marine
Explanation: An inverted pyramid of biomass is often found in marine ecosystems where the biomass of producers (phytoplankton) is smaller than that of the primary consumers (zooplankton) that feed on them at any given time.
155. Ecotone is
A. A zone of stable environment
B. A transition zone between two communities
C. A zone of uniform species distribution
D. A zone of high biodiversity
Answer: B. A transition zone between two communities
Explanation: An ecotone is a transitional area between two different biological communities, where characteristics of both communities can be found.
156. Among Mountain, Desert, Forest, Ocean which one is the most stable ecosystem?
A. Mountain
B. Desert
C. Forest
D. Ocean
Answer: D. Ocean
Explanation: The ocean ecosystem is generally considered the most stable due to its vastness, thermal stability, and large capacity to absorb changes, leading to less fluctuation in environmental conditions compared to terrestrial ecosystems.
157. The active chemical drug reserpine is obtained from
A. Opium poppy
B. Digitalis
C. Rauwolfia
D. Cinchona
Answer: C. Rauwolfia
Explanation: Reserpine, an alkaloid with antihypertensive and antipsychotic properties, is obtained from the plant Rauwolfia serpentina.
158. What will be the molality of the solution containing 18.25g of HCI gas in 500 g of water?
A. 0.5 m
B. 1 m
C. 2 m
D. 0.1 m
Answer: B. 1m
Explanation: Molar mass of HCl = 1.008 + 35.453 = 36.461 g/mol. Moles of HCl = 18.25 g / 36.461 g/mol ≈ 0.5 mol. Molality = moles of solute / kg of solvent = 0.5 mol / 0.5 kg = 1 m.
159. The pair of ions having same electronic configuration is
A. Na+, K+
B. Fe3+, Mn2+
C. Mg2+, Ca2+
D. Cl-, Br-
Answer: B. Fe3+, Mn2+
Explanation: Both Fe³⁺ (atomic number 26) and Mn²⁺ (atomic number 25) have 23 electrons, resulting in the same electronic configuration, which is [Ar]3d⁵.
160. The wavelength of a radiation having frequency 1000Hz is
A. 3×10³ cm
B. 3×10⁵ cm
C. 3×10⁷ cm
D. 3×10⁹ cm
Answer: C. 3×10⁷ cm
Explanation: Using the formula wavelength = speed of light / frequency (c = 3×10⁸ m/s), wavelength = (3×10⁸ m/s) / 1000 Hz = 3×10⁵ m = 3×10⁷ cm.
161. The element with atomic number 57 belongs to
A. s-block
B. p-block
C. d-block
D. f-block
Answer: D. f-block
Explanation: The element with atomic number 57 is Lanthanum (La), which is the first element in the f-block of the periodic table.
162. Among Mg, Ca, Ba, Sr which element have lowest ionization enthalpy?
A. Mg
B. Ca
C. Ba
D. Sr
Answer: C. Ba
Explanation: Ionization enthalpy decreases down a group in the periodic table, so among the alkaline earth metals listed, Barium (Ba) will have the lowest ionization enthalpy as it is furthest down the group.
163. Among HCI, HI, H₂O, H₂S in which substance will hydrogen bond be strongest?
A. HCl
B. HI
C. H₂O
D. H₂S
Answer: C. H₂O
Explanation: Hydrogen bonding is strongest when hydrogen is bonded to highly electronegative and small atoms like Oxygen (O), Nitrogen (N), or Fluorine (F). Water (H₂O) exhibits strong hydrogen bonding due to oxygen’s high electronegativity.
164. ………………… has pyramidal structure.
A. CH₄
B. H₂O
C. NH₃
D. BF₃
Answer: C. NH₃
Explanation: Ammonia (NH₃) has a pyramidal structure because the central nitrogen atom has three bond pairs and one lone pair, leading to a trigonal pyramidal molecular geometry.
165. Mass of 112 cm³ of NH₃ gas at STP is
A. 0.085 g
B. 0.170 g
C. 0.0085 g
D. 0.0170 g
Answer: A. 0.085 g
Explanation: At STP, 22400 cm³ (22.4 L) of any gas is 1 mole. 112 cm³ of NH₃ is (112/22400) = 0.005 moles. Molar mass of NH₃ = 14 + 3(1) = 17 g/mol. Mass = 0.005 mol * 17 g/mol = 0.085 g.
166. Quartz glass is an ………………… solid.
A. crystalline
B. amorphous
C. ionic
D. metallic
Answer: B. amorphous
Explanation: Quartz glass is an amorphous solid, meaning its atoms lack a long-range ordered crystalline structure, unlike crystalline quartz.
167. The co-ordination number of sodium in Na₂O is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B. 4
Explanation: In sodium oxide (Na₂O), each sodium ion (Na⁺) is surrounded by four oxide ions (O²⁻), giving it a coordination number of 4.
168. ‘मन्, ममत्व, माया, मातृ में से भाववाचक संज्ञा है।
A. मन्
B. माया
C. मातृ
D. ममत्व
Answer: D. ममत्व
Explanation: ‘ममत्व’ is an abstract noun (भाववाचक संज्ञा) derived from ‘मम’ (mine/my), signifying the feeling of ‘my-ness’ or attachment.
169. ‘भिखारी को दान दो में कारक है।
A. कर्म कारक
B. करण कारक
C. सम्प्रदान कारक
D. अपादान कारक
Answer: C. सम्प्रदान कारक
Explanation: ‘सम्प्रदान कारक’ is used when something is given to someone with the intention of not taking it back, as in giving alms to a beggar.
170. ‘शक्तिहीन’ में समास है।
A. अव्ययीभाव
B. द्विगु
C. तत्पुरूष
D. कर्मधारय
Answer: C. तत्पुरूष
Explanation: ‘शक्तिहीन’ (without power/strength) is an example of a ‘तत्पुरूष समास’ where the second term is dependent on the first, and a case ending is understood (e.g., शक्ति से हीन – deficient in strength).