1. Which animal is the symbol of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF)?

• A. Giant Panda
• B. Red Panda
• C. Tiger
• D. Polar Bear

Answer: A. Giant Panda

Explanation: The Giant Panda is the symbol of the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).

2. Common indicator organism of water pollution is

• A. Paramecium
• B. Amoeba
• C. Escherichia coli
• D. Euglena

Answer: C. Escherichia coli

Explanation: Escherichia coli is a common indicator organism for water pollution.

3. Haemocoel occurs in

• A. Annelida
• B. Mollusca
• C. Arthropoda
• D. Chordata

Answer: C. Arthropoda

Explanation: Haemocoel, a primary body cavity, is found in Arthropoda.

4. Sponges are

• A. Ureotelic
• B. Uricotelic
• C. Ammonotelic
• D. Aminotelic

Answer: C. Ammonotelic

Explanation: Sponges excrete ammonia and are therefore ammonotelic.

5. Fresh water polyp is

• A. Obelia
• B. Aurelia
• C. Physalia
• D. Hydra

Answer: D. Hydra

Explanation: Hydra is a well-known example of a freshwater polyp.

6. Segments of Tapeworm are called

• A. Scolex
• B. Rostellum
• C. Proglottides
• D. Strobila

Answer: C. Proglottides

Explanation: The segments that make up a tapeworm’s body are called proglottides.

7. Syncytial epidermis occurs in

• A. Taenia
• B. Fasciola
• C. Ascaris
• D. Leech

Answer: C. Ascaris

Explanation: Ascaris, a type of roundworm, possesses a syncytial epidermis.

8. Each foot of ostrich has

• A. One digit
• B. Two unequal digits
• C. Three digits
• D. Four digits

Answer: B. Two unequal digits

Explanation: Ostriches have two toes on each foot, which are unequal in size.

9. Snakes lack

• A. Lungs
• B. Scales
• C. Tympanum
• D. Jaw

Answer: C. Tympanum

Explanation: Snakes do not have an external eardrum or tympanum.

10. Hyla is a

• A. Water snake
• B. Tree frog
• C. Salamander
• D. Toad

Answer: B. Tree frog

Explanation: Hyla is a genus of tree frogs.

11. Sharks are

• A. Viviparous
• B. Oviparous
• C. Ovoviviparous
• D. Parthenogenetic

Answer: C. Ovoviviparous

Explanation: Sharks exhibit ovoviviparous reproduction, where eggs hatch inside the mother’s body.

12. Evisceration is found in

• A. Annelida
• B. Mollusca
• C. Arthropoda
• D. Echinodermata

Answer: D. Echinodermata

Explanation: Evisceration, the expulsion of internal organs, is a defense mechanism seen in some Echinodermata.

13. The number of moles in 0.64g of SO₂ is

• A. 0.001
• B. 0.01
• C. 0.1
• D. 1

Answer: B. 0.01

Explanation: To find the number of moles, divide the mass (0.64g) by the molar mass of SO₂ (64.07 g/mol), which is approximately 0.01 moles.

14. Which among Mg²⁺, Ti³⁺, V³⁺, Fe²⁺ has maximum number of unpaired electrons?

• A. Mg²⁺
• B. Ti³⁺
• C. V³⁺
• D. Fe²⁺

Answer: D. Fe²⁺

Explanation: Fe²⁺ ([Ar] 3d⁶) has 4 unpaired electrons, which is the maximum among the given ions.

15. The law of octaves was given by

• A. Dmitri Mendeleev
• B. John Newlands
• C. Lothar Meyer
• D. Henry Moseley

Answer: B. John Newlands

Explanation: The law of octaves, which pre-dated the periodic table, was proposed by John Newlands.

16. XeF₄ molecule is

• A. Linear
• B. Tetrahedral
• C. Square planar
• D. Trigonal bipyramidal

Answer: C. Square planar

Explanation: XeF₄ has a square planar geometry due to two lone pairs and four bond pairs on the central xenon atom.

17. At absolute zero temperature, the total kinetic energy of the molecules is

• A. Maximum
• B. Minimum
• C. Zero
• D. Negative

Answer: C. Zero

Explanation: At absolute zero, molecular motion theoretically ceases, resulting in zero kinetic energy.

18. Which among temperature, entropy, mass, volume is an intensive property?

• A. Temperature
• B. Entropy
• C. Mass
• D. Volume

Answer: A. Temperature

Explanation: Temperature is an intensive property, meaning it does not depend on the amount of substance.

19. The pH of 0.001 M NaOH solution is

• A. 3
• B. 7
• C. 11
• D. 14

Answer: C. 11

Explanation: For 0.001 M NaOH, pOH = -log[0.001] = 3, so pH = 14 – 3 = 11.

20. Carbon is in the lowest oxidation state in:

• A. CH₄
• B. CCl₄
• C. CF₄
• D. CO₂

Answer: A. CH₄

Explanation: In CH₄, carbon has an oxidation state of -4, which is the lowest among the given options.

21. The normality of 30 volume H₂O₂ is

• A. 2.678 N
• B. 5.336 N
• C. 10.672 N
• D. 16.008 N

Answer: B. 5.336 N

Explanation: For H₂O₂ solutions, “volume strength” can be converted to normality; 30 volume H₂O₂ is approximately 5.336 N.

22. The most electropositive metal is

• A. Lithium
• B. Sodium
• C. Potassium
• D. Cesium

Answer: D. Cesium

Explanation: Cesium is the most electropositive metal in the periodic table.

23. Which is not a cyclic compound:

• A. Anthracene
• B. Pyrrole
• C. Isobutylene
• D. Phenol

Answer: C. Isobutylene

Explanation: Isobutylene is an acyclic (straight-chain or branched-chain) alkene, unlike the other options which are cyclic.

24. Optical isomerism is shown by:

• A. Butanol-1
• B. Butanol-2
• C. Butene-1
• D. Butene-2

Answer: B. Butanol-2

Explanation: Butanol-2 has a chiral carbon atom, making it capable of showing optical isomerism.

25. Beilstein’s test is used for the detection of

• A. Nitrogen
• B. Sulfur
• C. Halogens
• D. Phosphorus

Answer: C. Halogens

Explanation: Beilstein’s test is a qualitative chemical test used to detect the presence of halogens in an organic compound.

26. The carbon-carbon bond length is shortest in:

• A. Ethane
• B. Propane
• C. Ethene
• D. Ethyne

Answer: D. Ethyne

Explanation: Ethyne (acetylene) has a carbon-carbon triple bond, which is the shortest and strongest carbon-carbon bond type.

27. In a simple cubic lattice, the ratio between distance between nearest neighbour and radius of an atom is

• A. 1:1
• B. 2:1
• C. √2:1
• D. √3:1

Answer: B. 2:1

Explanation: In a simple cubic lattice, the nearest neighbor distance is equal to the side length of the cube, which is twice the radius of the atom (a = 2r).

28. Which of these is a colligative property:

• A. Boiling point
• B. Osmotic pressure
• C. Vapour pressure
• D. Freezing point

Answer: B. Osmotic pressure

Explanation: Osmotic pressure is a colligative property, meaning it depends on the concentration of solute particles, not their identity.

29. During rusting of iron it gets

• A. Oxidised
• B. Reduced
• C. Neutralized
• D. Hydrolysed

Answer: A. Oxidised

Explanation: Rusting of iron is an electrochemical process where iron gets oxidized.

30. The half-life period of a reaction is 100 min. In 400 min, the initial concentration of 2.0 g will become

• A. 1.0 g
• B. 0.5 g
• C. 0.25 g
• D. 0.125 g

Answer: D. 0.125 g

Explanation: After 4 half-lives (400 min / 100 min = 4), the concentration will be (1/2)⁴ of the initial, so 2.0 g * (1/16) = 0.125 g.

31. Purple of cassius is colloidal sol of

• A. Gold
• B. Silver
• C. Platinum
• D. Copper

Answer: A. Gold

Explanation: Purple of Cassius is a colloidal suspension of gold nanoparticles.

32. Copper is refined by

• A. Distillation
• B. Electrolytic method
• C. Zone refining
• D. Liquation

Answer: B. Electrolytic method

Explanation: Copper is commonly refined using the electrolytic method.

33. Bleaching action of SO₂ is due to

• A. Oxidation
• B. Reduction
• C. Hydrolysis
• D. Chlorination

Answer: B. Reduction

Explanation: The bleaching action of sulfur dioxide (SO₂) is primarily due to its reducing properties.

34. Calomel is

• A. HgCl₂
• B. Hg₂Cl₂
• C. HgO
• D. HgS

Answer: B. Hg₂Cl₂

Explanation: Calomel is the common name for mercurous chloride, with the chemical formula Hg₂Cl₂.

35. The number of ligands which are directly bonded to the metal ion is known as

• A. Oxidation number
• B. Valency
• C. Co-ordination number
• D. Atomic number

Answer: C. Co-ordination number

Explanation: The coordination number refers to the number of ligands directly bonded to the central metal ion in a coordination complex.

36. Gammexane is the name given to

• A. CCl₄
• B. CHCl₃
• C. C₆H₆Cl₆
• D. C₂H₂Cl₄

Answer: C. C₆H₆Cl₆

Explanation: Gammexane is the common name for Benzene Hexachloride (BHC), with the formula C₆H₆Cl₆.

37. Which of these is most acidic:

• A. Picric Acid
• B. Phenol
• C. Ethyl Alcohol
• D. p-Nitrophenol

Answer: A. Picric Acid

Explanation: Picric acid (2,4,6-trinitrophenol) is highly acidic due to the strong electron-withdrawing effect of three nitro groups.

38. Which of these is hypnotic:

• A. Acetaldehyde
• B. Paraldehyde
• C. Metaldehyde
• D. Formaldehyde

Answer: B. Paraldehyde

Explanation: Paraldehyde is a hypnotic drug, meaning it induces sleep.

39. Aniline is purified by

• A. Simple distillation
• B. Fractional distillation
• C. Steam distillation
• D. Vacuum distillation

Answer: C. Steam distillation

Explanation: Aniline can be purified by steam distillation because it is volatile in steam.

40. Hydrolysis of sugar is called

• A. Esterification
• B. Saponification
• C. Inversion
• D. Fermentation

Answer: C. Inversion

Explanation: The hydrolysis of sucrose (a type of sugar) into glucose and fructose is called inversion.

41. Plexiglass is a commercial name of

• A. Polyvinyl chloride
• B. Polymethyl methacrylate
• C. Polystyrene
• D. Polyethylene

Answer: B. Polymethyl methacrylate

Explanation: Plexiglass is a common commercial name for Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA).

42. Equanil is

• A. Antiseptic
• B. Analgesic
• C. Tranquilizer
• D. Antibiotic

Answer: C. Tranquilizer

Explanation: Equanil is a brand name for meprobamate, which is a tranquilizer.

43. A normal child of twelve years of age is most likely to

• A. Be eager for peer approval
• B. Be self-centered
• C. Have difficulty with abstract thought
• D. Prefer solitary activities

Answer: A. Be eager for peer approval

Explanation: Children around twelve years of age typically start seeking approval and acceptance from their peers.

44. If education is made vocation oriented this will lead to-

• A. Decrease of interest of students in studies
• B. Increase of interest of students in studies
• C. More theoretical knowledge
• D. Less practical application

Answer: B. Increase of interest of students in studies

Explanation: Vocation-oriented education often increases student interest by making learning more relevant to their future careers.

45. The true objective of education is

• A. To provide information
• B. To facilitate all-round development of students
• C. To prepare for examinations
• D. To impart only academic knowledge

Answer: B. To facilitate all-round development of students

Explanation: The true objective of education encompasses the holistic development of students, including intellectual, social, emotional, and physical aspects.

46. Who was the pioneer of the thought of pragmatism in the field of education?

• A. Jean Piaget
• B. John Dewey
• C. Lev Vygotsky
• D. Maria Montessori

Answer: B. John Dewey

Explanation: John Dewey is widely considered the pioneer of pragmatism in the field of education.

47. The best argument for group intelligence test is that it

• A. Provides the teacher with diagnostic information
• B. Eliminates individual differences
• C. Is easier to administer
• D. Is less time-consuming

Answer: A. Provides the teacher with diagnostic information

Explanation: Group intelligence tests can offer teachers valuable diagnostic information about students’ abilities.

48. Which one of these is not a characteristic of mental retardation:

• A. IQ between 25 to 70
• B. Learning in a slow pace and unable to do the activities of daily routine
• C. Poor adaptation with the environment
• D. Poor interpersonal relations

Answer: D. Poor interpersonal relations

Explanation: While individuals with mental retardation may have social challenges, “poor interpersonal relations” is not a defining characteristic used for diagnosis; the other options are typical indicators.

49. Basic education is

• A. Activity based, Student based, Handicraft based
• B. Teacher centered
• C. Rote learning based
• D. Exam oriented

Answer: A. Activity based, Student based, Handicraft based

Explanation: Basic education, particularly as advocated by Mahatma Gandhi’s ‘Nai Talim’, emphasizes activity-based, student-centered, and craft-based learning.

50. Motivation is a

• A. Physical state
• B. Psychological state
• C. Social state
• D. Economic state

Answer: B. Psychological state

Explanation: Motivation is primarily a psychological state that drives an individual’s behavior and actions.

51. When the teacher prepares a teaching plan for the students of his class, then he has to keep in mind the age of his students

• A. Chronological and Mental
• B. Only Chronological
• C. Only Mental
• D. Neither Chronological nor Mental

Answer: A. Chronological and Mental

Explanation: A teacher preparing a teaching plan should consider both the chronological (actual) and mental (developmental) age of the students.

52. Learning disabilities may occur due to all of these, except:

• A. Cultural factors
• B. Cerebral dysfunction
• C. Emotional disturbance
• D. Behavior disturbance

Answer: A. Cultural factors

Explanation: Learning disabilities are generally attributed to neurological differences (cerebral dysfunction) or emotional/behavioral disturbances, rather than cultural factors.

53. Which district has lowest number of small scale industries in Himachal Pradesh?

• A. Kinnaur
• B. Lahaul & Spiti
• C. Chamba
• D. Sirmour

Answer: A. Kinnaur

Explanation: Kinnaur district in Himachal Pradesh has the lowest number of small scale industries.

54. Which is the highest hydroelectric project in Himachal Pradesh?

• A. Nathpa Jhakri
• B. Bhakra
• C. Rong Tong – Lahaul
• D. Karcham Wangtoo

Answer: C. Rong Tong – Lahaul

Explanation: Rong Tong project in Lahaul is the highest hydroelectric project in Himachal Pradesh.

55. Kugti pass connects Bharmour with

• A. Kullu
• B. Lahaul
• C. Spiti
• D. Pangi

Answer: B. Lahaul

Explanation: Kugti Pass is a mountain pass that connects Bharmour in Chamba district with Lahaul.

56. ‘Shitidhar’ is located in which district of Himachal Pradesh?

• A. Kangra
• B. Kullu
• C. Mandi
• D. Shimla

Answer: A. Kangra

Explanation: Shitidhar is a mountain peak located in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh.

57. Kopra water spring is situated in which district of Himachal Pradesh

• A. Kinnaur
• B. Kullu
• C. Shimla
• D. Mandi

Answer: A. Kinnaur

Explanation: Kopra water spring is located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh.

58. Bhai do na Pai was the slogan of which movement in Himachal Pradesh?

• A. Dhami Agitation
• B. Suket Satyagraha
• C. Praja Mandal Movement
• D. Pajhota Movement

Answer: D. Pajhota Movement

Explanation: “Bhai do na Pai” (Give us brothers, not money) was a prominent slogan of the Pajhota Movement.

59. Himalayan Hill States Regional Council was established in which year?

• A. 1946
• B. 1948
• C. 1950
• D. 1952

Answer: A. 1946

Explanation: The Himalayan Hill States Regional Council was established in 1946.

60. Which one became the fifth district of Himachal Pradesh?

• A. Bilaspur
• B. Chamba
• C. Mandi
• D. Sirmaur

Answer: A. Bilaspur

Explanation: Bilaspur became the fifth district of Himachal Pradesh in 1954.

61. Who was the first Chief Secretary of Himachal Pradesh?

• A. K.L. Mehta (I.C.S.)
• B. N.C. Mehta
• C. J.N. Bhargava
• D. V.S. Bhardwaj

Answer: A. K.L. Mehta (I.C.S.)

Explanation: K.L. Mehta (I.C.S.) was the first Chief Secretary of Himachal Pradesh.

62. The Himachal Pradesh Private Educational Institutions Act was enacted in which year?

• A. 2005
• B. 2008
• C. 2010
• D. 2012

Answer: C. 2010

Explanation: The Himachal Pradesh Private Educational Institutions Act was enacted in 2010.

63. Dun valley is located in which district of Himachal Pradesh?

• A. Solan
• B. Sirmaur
• C. Una
• D. Kangra

Answer: A. Solan

Explanation: Dun valley is located in the Solan district of Himachal Pradesh.

64. Kunt Bhayog lake is located in which district of Himachal Pradesh?

• A. Kullu
• B. Mandi
• C. Chamba
• D. Shimla

Answer: B. Mandi

Explanation: Kunt Bhayog lake is located in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh.

65. Agriculture Co-operative Staff Training Institute is located at which place in Himachal Pradesh?

• A. Sangti
• B. Palampur
• C. Nauni
• D. Sundernagar

Answer: A. Sangti

Explanation: The Agriculture Co-operative Staff Training Institute is located at Sangti in Himachal Pradesh.

66. ‘Bilaspur Past, Present and Future’ book is written by

• A. Rahul Sankrityayan
• B. Anand Chand
• C. Mian Goverdhan Singh
• D. Ganesh Singh

Answer: B. Anand Chand

Explanation: The book ‘Bilaspur Past, Present and Future’ was written by Anand Chand.

67. Dangi is a folk dance of

• A. Kinnaur
• B. Kullu
• C. Chamba
• D. Lahaul & Spiti

Answer: C. Chamba

Explanation: Dangi is a traditional folk dance of the Chamba district.

68. In a certain code ‘721’ means ‘good college life’; ‘526’ means ‘you is good’ and ‘257’ means ‘life is good’, then which word is used for ‘you’?

• A. 7
• B. 2
• C. 5
• D. 6

Answer: D. 6

Explanation: By comparing the codes, ‘good’ is 2, ‘is’ is 5, and ‘life’ is 7, leaving ‘you’ as 6.

69. In the given number series, how many 3’s are there which are preceded by an odd number and followed by an even number: 53894372381384235734236

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 3
• D. 4

Answer: C. 3

Explanation: The 3’s that fit the criteria are: 538, 734, and 138.

70. There are 41 steps in a temple. In the same time Surendra comes down 4 steps, Virendra goes up two steps. If they start simultaneously and keep their speeds uniform then at which step from the bottom will they meet?

• A. 7th
• B. 8th
• C. 9th
• D. 10th

Answer: A. 7th

Explanation: They meet at the 7th step from the bottom. If Surendra is at step ‘S’ from the top and Virendra is at step ‘V’ from the bottom, S+V=42. For every 4 steps down Surendra takes, Virendra takes 2 steps up. Their relative speed of closing the gap is 6 steps. Since the total steps is 41, they effectively cover 41 steps together. After 6 steps of Surendra (46=24 steps down) and Virendra (26=12 steps up), they are at step 24 from top and step 12 from bottom, leaving 41-(24+12) = 5 steps. The meeting point can be calculated as the 7th step from the bottom.

71. A is the mother of B. C is the father of B and C has 3 children. On the basis of this information which of the following relations is correct:

• A. B is the son
• B. B has two daughters
• C. C has three sons
• D. None of these

Answer: D. None of these

Explanation: Based only on the provided information, we cannot definitively conclude any of the given options.

72. Some boys are sitting in a row. P is 14th from the left and F is 7th from the right. If there are 4 boys in between P and F then, how many boys are there in the row?

• A. 23
• B. 24
• C. 25
• D. 26

Answer: C. 25

Explanation: Total boys = Position of P from left + Position of F from right + Boys in between = 14 + 7 + 4 = 25.

73. Which global organisation has recently launched the ‘COVID Action Platform’ to convene the business community to support for COVID-19?

• A. World Health Organization
• B. World Economic Forum
• C. United Nations
• D. International Monetary Fund

Answer: B. World Economic Forum

Explanation: The World Economic Forum launched the ‘COVID Action Platform’ to mobilize the business community against COVID-19.

74. World Bank has recently signed an 80 million loan agreement with which Indian state to increase agricultural productivity in its gram panchayats?

• A. Himachal Pradesh
• B. Telangana
• C. Andhra Pradesh
• D. Maharashtra

Answer: A. Himachal Pradesh

Explanation: The World Bank signed an 80 million dollar loan agreement with Himachal Pradesh to boost agricultural productivity in its gram panchayats.

75. The tombs of Taramati and Premamati, which were in news recently are located in which Indian state?

• A. Karnataka
• B. Telangana
• C. Rajasthan
• D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: B. Telangana

Explanation: The tombs of Taramati and Premamati are located in the state of Telangana.—-

76. Ankita Raina, who was in news recently, is associated with which sport?

• A. Badminton
• B. Table Tennis
• C. Tennis
• D. Squash

Answer: C. Tennis

Explanation: Ankita Raina is a professional Indian tennis player.

77. The recently published book titled ‘Adventures of a Daredevil Democrat’ narrates the story of which former chief minister?

• A. Biju Patnaik
• B. Jyoti Basu
• C. M. Karunanidhi
• D. Lalu Prasad Yadav

Answer: A. Biju Patnaik

Explanation: The book ‘Adventures of a Daredevil Democrat’ tells the story of former Odisha Chief Minister Biju Patnaik.

78. Who was the last Nanda ruler?

• A. Mahapadma Nanda
• B. Dhana Nanda
• C. Panduka
• D. Govishanaka

Answer: B. Dhana Nanda

Explanation: Dhana Nanda was the last ruler of the Nanda dynasty.

79. Padmini was the queen of

• A. Mewar
• B. Chittor
• C. Ranthambore
• D. Amber

Answer: B. Chittor

Explanation: Padmini was the legendary queen of Chittor, known for her beauty and valor.

80. Battle of Kannauj took place in which year?

• A. 1526 A.D.
• B. 1539 A.D.
• C. 1540 A.D.
• D. 1556 A.D.

Answer: C. 1540 A.D.

Explanation: The Battle of Kannauj, also known as the Battle of Bilgram, took place in 1540 A.D.

81. Who was the first Governor General of India?

• A. Lord William Bentinck
• B. Lord Dalhousie
• C. Lord Canning
• D. Lord Ripon

Answer: A. Lord William Bentinck

Explanation: Lord William Bentinck was the first Governor General of India.

82. Jet stream blows in which directions?

• A. East to west
• B. West to east
• C. North to south
• D. South to north

Answer: B. West to east

Explanation: Jet streams typically blow from west to east in the upper atmosphere.83. Pampas is a grassland of which country?

• A. Australia
• B. South Africa
• C. Argentina
• D. North America

Answer: C. Argentina

Explanation: Pampas are fertile South American lowlands, primarily in Argentina.

84. Which is the smallest ocean?

• A. Indian Ocean
• B. Atlantic Ocean
• C. Arctic Ocean
• D. Southern Ocean

Answer: C. Arctic Ocean

Explanation: The Arctic Ocean is recognized as the smallest of the world’s five major oceans.

85. Naga Tibba mountain range is located in

• A. Himachal Pradesh
• B. Uttarakhand
• C. Jammu and Kashmir
• D. Sikkim

Answer: B. Uttarakhand

Explanation: The Nag Tibba mountain range is located in the Indian state of Uttarakhand.

86. Surat is located on the bank of which river?

• A. Narmada
• B. Tapi
• C. Godavari
• D. Krishna

Answer: B. Tapi

Explanation: Surat, a city in Gujarat, India, is situated on the banks of the Tapi River.

87. Rawatbhata Nuclear Power station is located in which state?

• A. Gujarat
• B. Rajasthan
• C. Maharashtra
• D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer: B. Rajasthan

Explanation: The Rawatbhata Nuclear Power Plant is located in the state of Rajasthan, India.

88. How many times has the preamble of the Indian constitution been amended so far?

• A. One
• B. Two
• C. Three
• D. Four

Answer: A. One

Explanation: The Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended only once, by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act in 1976.

89. Total number of Union Territories in India is

• A. 7
• B. 8
• C. 9
• D. 10

Answer: B. 8

Explanation: As of the current date, there are 8 Union Territories in India.

90. Which Article of Indian Constitution was termed as “Heart and Soul of the Constitution” by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

• A. Article 19
• B. Article 21
• C. Article 32
• D. Article 51A

Answer: C. Article 32

Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar famously referred to Article 32, which deals with the right to constitutional remedies, as the “Heart and Soul of the Constitution.”

91. The three tier system of Panchayati Raj was recommended by which committee?

• A. Ashok Mehta Committee
• B. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
• C. L.M. Singhvi Committee
• D. G.V.K. Rao Committee

Answer: B. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

Explanation: The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India.

92. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was set up in which year?

• A. 1988
• B. 1992
• C. 1995
• D. 2000

Answer: A. 1988

Explanation: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) was initially set up in 1988.

93. Which is a direct tax:

• A. Sales Tax
• B. Custom Duty
• C. Excise Duty
• D. Wealth Tax

Answer: D. Wealth Tax

Explanation: Wealth tax is a direct tax, levied on the value of assets.

94. Which mirror is used as a shaving mirror?

• A. Convex mirror
• B. Concave mirror
• C. Plane mirror
• D. Cylindrical mirror

Answer: B. Concave mirror

Explanation: A concave mirror is used as a shaving mirror because it produces a magnified, upright image when the object is placed within its focal length.

95. Antonym of ‘Capricious’ is

• A. Erratic
• B. Fickle
• C. Reliable
• D. Impulsive

Answer: C. Reliable

Explanation: The antonym of ‘capricious’ (meaning unpredictable or erratic) is ‘reliable’.

96. One word substitution for ‘A person who believes that pleasure is the chief good’ is

• A. Ascetic
• B. Hedonist
• C. Stoic
• D. Cynic

Answer: B. Hedonist

Explanation: A hedonist is a person who believes that the pursuit of pleasure is the most important thing in life.

97. My father was too …….. to push open the heavy door.

• A. Strong
• B. Robust
• C. Feeble
• D. Mighty

Answer: C. Feeble

Explanation: ‘Feeble’ means lacking physical strength or weakness, which fits the context of being unable to push a heavy door.

98. Meaning of the idiom ‘To have an axe to grind’ is

• A. To have a task to complete
• B. To have a selfish end to serve
• C. To be in a difficult situation
• D. To settle an old score

Answer: B. To have a selfish end to serve

Explanation: The idiom ‘to have an axe to grind’ means to have a personal, often selfish, reason for doing or being involved in something.

99. पायल का सन्धि विच्छेद है। (The Sandhi-viched of ‘पायल’ is)

• A. पा+यल
• B. पय+अल
• C. पै+अल
• D. पा+अयल

Answer: C. पै+अल

Explanation: The correct Sandhi-viched (dismantling of a compound word into its constituent parts) for ‘पायल’ is ‘पै+अल’.

100. यथाक्रम में समास है (The Samas in ‘यथाक्रम’ is)

• A. तत्पुरुष (Tatpurush)
• B. कर्मधारय (Karmadharaya)
• C. अव्ययीभाव (Avyayibhav)
• D. द्वंद्व (Dvanda)

Answer: C. अव्ययीभाव (Avyayibhav)

Explanation: ‘यथाक्रम’ is an example of Avyayibhav Samas, where the first word is an indeclinable (Avyaya) and the compound acts as an adverb.

101. ‘मदिरा’ का पर्यायवाची है। (The synonym of ‘मदिरा’ is)

• A. वारूणी
• B. सुरा
• C. मद
• D. आसव

Answer: All of the above (वारूणी, सुरा, मद, आसव)

Explanation: ‘वारूणी’, ‘सुरा’, ‘मद’, and ‘आसव’ are all synonyms for ‘मदिरा’ (alcohol/wine).

102. ‘खाक उड़ाना’ मुहावरे का अर्थ है। (The meaning of the idiom ‘खाक उड़ाना’ is)

• A. मिट्टी फैलाना (To spread soil)
• B. बेइज्जती करना (To insult/dishonor)
• C. गंदगी करना (To make dirty)
• D. बर्बाद करना (To ruin)

Answer: B. बेइज्जती करना

Explanation: The idiom ‘खाक उड़ाना’ means to insult or disgrace someone.

103. Metamorphosis is studied under

• A. Cytology
• B. Embryology
• C. Histology
• D. Physiology

Answer: B. Embryology

Explanation: Metamorphosis, a biological process of development, is studied within the field of embryology.

104. Maize is a

• A. Fungus
• B. Alga
• C. Taxon
• D. Plant

Answer: D. Plant

Explanation: Maize (corn) is a type of plant, specifically a grain.

105. Ingestive nutrition is

• A. Holophytic
• B. Holozoic
• C. Saprophytic
• D. Parasitic

Answer: B. Holozoic

Explanation: Ingestive nutrition, where organisms take in solid food particles, is characteristic of holozoic nutrition.

106. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) is

• A. Spherical virus
• B. Helical virus
• C. Polyhedral virus
• D. Complex virus

Answer: B. Helical virus

Explanation: Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) has a helical symmetry.

107. Cyanobacteria is the modern name of

• A. Myxophyceae
• B. Chlorophyceae
• C. Phaeophyceae
• D. Rhodophyceae

Answer: A. Myxophyceae

Explanation: Cyanobacteria were formerly known as Myxophyceae or blue-green algae.

108. Nitrifying bacteria are

• A. Photosynthetic
• B. Chemosynthetic
• C. Heterotrophic
• D. Symbiotic

Answer: B. Chemosynthetic

Explanation: Nitrifying bacteria obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic compounds, making them chemosynthetic.

109. A conserved structure is

• A. Flagellum
• B. Cilia
• C. Pilus
• D. Capsule

Answer: A. Flagellum

Explanation: A flagellum is a highly conserved structure, meaning its basic form and function have been maintained across diverse species over evolutionary time.

110. Incubation period of Plasmodium vivax is

• A. 7 days
• B. 10 days
• C. 14 days
• D. 21 days

Answer: C. 14 days

Explanation: The typical incubation period for Plasmodium vivax (causing malaria) is about 14 days.

111. A crustose lichen is

• A. Cladonia
• B. Usnea
• C. Graphis
• D. Parmelia

Answer: C. Graphis

Explanation: Graphis is an example of a crustose lichen, characterized by its crust-like growth firmly attached to the substrate.

112. Ergot is obtained from

• A. Penicillium
• B. Claviceps
• C. Aspergillus
• D. Saccharomyces

Answer: B. Claviceps

Explanation: Ergot is a fungal disease of rye and other cereal plants, caused by species of the fungus Claviceps.

113. Bakane disease is connected with discovery of

• A. Auxin
• B. Gibberellic acid
• C. Cytokinin
• D. Abscisic acid

Answer: B. Gibberellic acid

Explanation: Bakane disease, or “foolish seedling” disease in rice, led to the discovery of gibberellic acid.

114. Chlamydomonas shows

• A. Isogamy
• B. Anisogamy
• C. Oogamy
• D. All of these

Answer: D. All of these

Explanation: Chlamydomonas exhibits all three types of sexual reproduction: isogamy, anisogamy, and oogamy.

115. A tree fern is

• A. Adiantum
• B. Pteridium
• C. Cyathaea
• D. Dryopteris

Answer: C. Cyathaea

Explanation: Cyathea is a genus of tree ferns, known for their distinctive tree-like habit.

116. Xylem in Gymnosperms lacks

• A. Tracheids
• B. Xylem parenchyma
• C. Vessels
• D. Xylem fibres

Answer: C. Vessels

Explanation: Unlike angiosperms, the xylem of most gymnosperms lacks true vessels, relying primarily on tracheids for water transport.

117. Siphonogamy occurs in

• A. Algae
• B. Fungi
• C. Bryophytes
• D. Gymnosperms

Answer: D. Gymnosperms

Explanation: Siphonogamy, where pollen tubes deliver male gametes to the ovule, is characteristic of gymnosperms and angiosperms.

118. Laminaria is

• A. Green algae
• B. Red algae
• C. Brown algae
• D. Blue-green algae

Answer: C. Brown algae

Explanation: Laminaria is a genus of large brown algae, commonly known as kelp.

119. Apophysis in the capsule of Funaria is

• A. Upper part
• B. Middle part
• C. Lower part
• D. Entire capsule

Answer: C. Lower part

Explanation: The apophysis is the sterile, basal part of the capsule (sporangium) in Funaria (a moss).

120. In a fern sporangium, the number of spores is

• A. 16
• B. 32
• C. 64
• D. 128

Answer: C. 64

Explanation: A typical fern sporangium generally produces 64 spores.

121. Leafy gametophytes occur in

• A. Algae
• B. Fungi
• C. Bryophytes
• D. Pteridophytes

Answer: C. Bryophytes

Explanation: Leafy gametophytes are a characteristic feature of bryophytes, such as mosses.

122. Moss plants develop from

• A. Spore
• B. Protonema
• C. Rhizoids
• D. Capsule

Answer: B. Protonema

Explanation: Moss plants develop from a filamentous structure called protonema, which arises from germinating spores.

123. Indusium occurs in

• A. Algae
• B. Bryophytes
• C. Pteridophytes
• D. Gymnosperms

Answer: C. Pteridophytes

Explanation: Indusium is a protective covering found over the sori (clusters of sporangia) in many ferns (Pteridophytes).

124. Which one is the earliest land plant

• A. Rhynia
• B. Cooksonia
• C. Zosterophyllum
• D. Psilophyton

Answer: B. Cooksonia

Explanation: Cooksonia is considered one of the earliest known land plants.

125. Fuelgen test is specific for

• A. RNA
• B. DNA
• C. Protein
• D. Carbohydrate

Answer: B. DNA

Explanation: The Feulgen test is a cytochemical staining method specific for DNA.

126. Protoplasm is

• A. A colloidal solution
• B. A crystalline solution
• C. A crystallo-colloidal complex
• D. A suspension

Answer: C. A crystallo-colloidal complex

Explanation: Protoplasm is a complex mixture with both crystalline and colloidal properties, often described as a crystallo-colloidal complex.

127. The term plastid was given by

• A. Robert Brown
• B. Ernst Haeckel
• C. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
• D. Theodor Schwann

Answer: B. Ernst Haeckel

Explanation: The term “plastid” was coined by Ernst Haeckel.

128. The hereditary vehicle is

• A. Ribosome
• B. Mitochondria
• C. Chromosome
• D. Endoplasmic reticulum

Answer: C. Chromosome

Explanation: Chromosomes are the structures that carry genetic information (DNA) and are thus the hereditary vehicles.

129. Peroxisomes occur in

• A. Animal cells only
• B. Plant cells only
• C. Mesophyll cells
• D. Both animal and plant cells

Answer: D. Both animal and plant cells

Explanation: Peroxisomes are organelles found in virtually all eukaryotic cells, including both animal and plant cells (e.g., mesophyll cells).

130. Raffinose is a

• A. Monosaccharide
• B. Disaccharide
• C. Trisaccharide
• D. Polysaccharide

Answer: C. Trisaccharide

Explanation: Raffinose is a trisaccharide, composed of galactose, glucose, and fructose.

131. Most abundant protein in the human body is

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Collagen
• C. Actin
• D. Myosin

Answer: B. Collagen

Explanation: Collagen is the most abundant protein in the human body, forming connective tissues.

132. Which amino acid is not optically active?

• A. Alanine
• B. Glycine
• C. Valine
• D. Leucine

Answer: B. Glycine

Explanation: Glycine is the only amino acid that is not optically active because its alpha carbon has two identical hydrogen atoms.

133. Cell turgidity is caused by

• A. Exosmosis
• B. Endosmosis
• C. Plasmolysis
• D. Diffusion

Answer: B. Endosmosis

Explanation: Cell turgidity is caused by endosmosis, the movement of water into the cell, increasing internal pressure.

134. Force for active water absorption is present in

• A. Root
• B. Stem
• C. Leaf
• D. Flower

Answer: A. Root

Explanation: The primary force for active water absorption in plants resides in the root, driven by mechanisms like root pressure.

135. Critical element are

• A. N, P and K
• B. C, H and O
• C. Ca, Mg and S
• D. Fe, Mn and Zn

Answer: A. N, P and K

Explanation: Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), and Potassium (K) are considered critical or major essential elements for plant growth.

136. The substrate for photorespiration is

• A. Glucose
• B. RuBP
• C. Glycolate
• D. PEP

Answer: C. Glycolate

Explanation: Glycolate is the primary substrate for the process of photorespiration.

137. Ferredoxin is a constituent of

• A. PS-I
• B. PS-II
• C. Cytochrome b6f complex
• D. ATP synthase

Answer: A. PS-I

Explanation: Ferredoxin is an iron-sulfur protein that functions as an electron acceptor in Photosystem I (PS-I) during photosynthesis.

138. Which cell does not respire?

• A. Meristematic cell
• B. Parenchyma cell
• C. Cork cell
• D. Companion cell

Answer: C. Cork cell

Explanation: Cork cells are dead cells with suberized walls, which makes them impervious to gases and therefore they do not respire.

139. Respiratory Quotient of protein is

• A. 1.0
• B. 0.7
• C. 0.9
• D. 0.8

Answer: C. 0.9

Explanation: The Respiratory Quotient (RQ) for proteins is approximately 0.9.

140. The short day plants are

• A. Wheat, Rice, Soyabean
• B. Cotton, Rice, Soyabean
• C. Pea, Lettuce, Spinach
• D. Radish, Cabbage, Carrot

Answer: B. Cotton, Rice, Soyabean

Explanation: Cotton, Rice, and Soyabean are examples of short-day plants, which flower when the day length is shorter than a critical photoperiod.

141. Richmond Lang effect is due to

• A. Auxin
• B. Gibberellin
• C. Cytokinin
• D. Ethylene

Answer: C. Cytokinin

Explanation: The Richmond-Lang effect, which refers to the delay of senescence in plants, is attributed to the action of cytokinins.

142. Which class exhibits polymorphism?

• A. Hydrozoa
• B. Scyphozoa
• C. Anthozoa
• D. Cubozoa

Answer: A. Hydrozoa

Explanation: The class Hydrozoa (e.g., in Cnidarians) is well-known for exhibiting polymorphism, with different forms like polyps and medusae.

143. Name one Limbless amphibian?

• A. Salamandra
• B. Triton
• C. Ichthyophis
• D. Bufo

Answer: C. Ichthyophis

Explanation: Ichthyophis is a genus of caecilians, which are limbless amphibians.

144. The outer covering of cartilage is called

• A. Perichondrium
• B. Periosteum
• C. Endosteum
• D. Perimysium

Answer: A. Perichondrium

Explanation: The outer covering of cartilage is called the perichondrium.

145. Earthworms reproduce primarily by

• A. Budding
• B. Fragmentation
• C. Cross fertilisation
• D. Parthenogenesis

Answer: C. Cross fertilisation

Explanation: Earthworms are hermaphroditic but primarily reproduce by cross-fertilization.

146. Cud chewing animals are called

• A. Carnivores
• B. Herbivores
• C. Ruminants
• D. Omnivores

Answer: C. Ruminants

Explanation: Cud-chewing animals, which chew partially digested food, are called ruminants.

147. In ileum, which substance is absorbed

• A. Water
• B. Glucose
• C. Fatty acids
• D. Amino acids

Answer: B. Glucose

Explanation: Glucose, along with other nutrients, is primarily absorbed in the ileum of the small intestine.

148. Pneumotaxic centre is present in

• A. Medulla oblongata
• B. Pons varolii
• C. Cerebrum
• D. Cerebellum

Answer: B. Pons varolii

Explanation: The pneumotaxic center, which regulates breathing, is located in the pons varolii.

149. Emphysema is a

• A. Cardiovascular disorder
• B. Respiratory disorder
• C. Digestive disorder
• D. Nervous disorder

Answer: B. Respiratory disorder

Explanation: Emphysema is a chronic respiratory disorder characterized by damage to the air sacs in the lungs.

150. Carotid labyrinth contains

• A. Baroreceptors
• B. Chemoreceptors
• C. Photoreceptors
• D. Mechanoreceptors

Answer: B. Chemoreceptors

Explanation: The carotid labyrinth, or carotid body, contains chemoreceptors that monitor blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.

151. Osmoregulation is the function of

• A. Pancreas
• B. Kidney
• C. Liver
• D. Spleen

Answer: B. Kidney

Explanation: Osmoregulation, the regulation of water and solute concentrations, is a primary function of the kidneys.

152. Colle’s fracture is associated with

• A. Femur
• B. Tibia
• C. Radius
• D. Humerus

Answer: C. Radius

Explanation: Colle’s fracture is a common type of fracture of the distal radius.

153. Innominate is

• A. A part of skeleton and an artery
• B. A part of muscle
• C. A part of nerve
• D. A part of gland

Answer: A. A part of skeleton and an artery

Explanation: The innominate bone (hip bone) is part of the skeleton, and the innominate artery (brachiocephalic artery) is a major artery.

154. Bowman’s glands are found in

• A. Olfactory epithelium
• B. Gastric epithelium
• C. Intestinal epithelium
• D. Renal tubules

Answer: A. Olfactory epithelium

Explanation: Bowman’s glands are mucous glands located in the olfactory epithelium, which produces mucus that dissolves odorants.

155. Epinephrine is secreted by

• A. Thyroid gland
• B. Pituitary gland
• C. Adrenal medulla
• D. Pancreas

Answer: C. Adrenal medulla

Explanation: Epinephrine (adrenaline) is a hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla.

156. Corpus spongiosum is found in

• A. Ovary
• B. Testis
• C. Penis
• D. Uterus

Answer: C. Penis

Explanation: The corpus spongiosum is a mass of erectile tissue in the penis that surrounds the urethra.

157. Polar bodies are formed during

• A. Spermatogenesis
• B. Oogenesis
• C. Fertilization
• D. Implantation

Answer: B. Oogenesis

Explanation: Polar bodies are small haploid cells produced during oogenesis alongside the ovum.

158. The endometrium is the lining of

• A. Vagina
• B. Cervix
• C. Uterus
• D. Fallopian tube

Answer: C. Uterus

Explanation: The endometrium is the inner lining of the uterus, which thickens and sheds during the menstrual cycle.

159. Division of human egg is

• A. Holoblastic, unequal
• B. Meroblastic, equal
• C. Holoblastic, equal
• D. Meroblastic, unequal

Answer: A. Holoblastic, unequal

Explanation: Human egg cleavage is holoblastic (complete division) but unequal, leading to cells of different sizes.

160. Cervical caps are meant for

• A. Infertility treatment
• B. Birth control
• C. STD prevention
• D. Hormonal therapy

Answer: B. Birth control

Explanation: Cervical caps are a barrier method of birth control designed to prevent sperm from entering the uterus.

161. ‘XO’ type of sex determination is seen in

• A. Humans
• B. Birds
• C. Grasshopper
• D. Butterflies

Answer: C. Grasshopper

Explanation: The ‘XO’ type of sex determination, where females have two X chromosomes and males have only one X chromosome, is observed in grasshoppers.

162. RNA polymerase II is responsible for transcription of

• A. rRNA
• B. tRNA
• C. hnRNA
• D. All of these

Answer: C. hnRNA

Explanation: RNA polymerase II is primarily responsible for transcribing heterogeneous nuclear RNA (hnRNA), which is a precursor to mRNA.

163. Cosmozoic theory was proposed by

• A. Louis Pasteur
• B. Oparin and Haldane
• C. Richter
• D. Stanley Miller

Answer: C. Richter

Explanation: The Cosmozoic theory, suggesting that life on Earth originated from microorganisms or spores from outer space, was proposed by Richter.

164. Connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca is

• A. Peripatus
• B. Neopilina
• C. Archaeopteryx
• D. Balanoglossus

Answer: B. Neopilina

Explanation: Neopilina is considered a connecting link between Annelida and Mollusca, showing characteristics of both phyla.

165. Which antibody initiates allergic reaction

• A. IgG
• B. IgA
• C. IgM
• D. IgE

Answer: D. IgE

Explanation: Immunoglobulin E (IgE) antibodies are primarily responsible for initiating allergic reactions.

166. Several plant pathogens can be controlled by which biocontrol agent?

• A. Bacillus thuringiensis
• B. Trichoderma
• C. Nuclear polyhedrosis virus
• D. Ladybird beetle

Answer: B. Trichoderma

Explanation: Trichoderma is a widely used biocontrol agent for controlling various plant pathogens.

167. A free living anaerobic nitrogen fixing bacterium is

• A. Azotobacter
• B. Rhizobium
• C. Clostridium
• D. Nostoc

Answer: C. Clostridium

Explanation: Clostridium is an example of a free-living anaerobic bacterium capable of nitrogen fixation.

168. Which of these (Restriction Enzyme, Vector, Polymerase Enzyme, Introns) is not a tool in recombinant DNA technology?

• A. Restriction Enzyme
• B. Vector
• C. Polymerase Enzyme
• D. Introns

Answer: D. Introns

Explanation: Introns are non-coding regions within genes and are not used as tools in recombinant DNA technology; the others are essential tools.—-

169. Mycorrhizae are more common in

• A. Eutrophic soil
• B. Oligotrophic soil
• C. Saline soil
• D. Waterlogged soil

Answer: B. Oligotrophic soil

Explanation: Mycorrhizal associations are particularly beneficial and thus more common in oligotrophic (nutrient-poor) soils, where they help plants acquire essential nutrients.

170. Pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is

• A. Inverted
• B. Upright
• C. Spindle-shaped
• D. Irregular

Answer: B. Upright

Explanation: The pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem is typically upright, with producers (grasses) being the most numerous.

171. Species problem can be solved by

• A. Typological concept
• B. Biological concept
• C. Evolutionary concept
• D. Ecological concept

Answer: B. Biological concept

Explanation: The biological species concept helps solve the species problem by defining species based on their ability to interbreed and produce fertile offspring.

172. Maximum amount of energy is produced from

• A. Carbohydrates
• B. Proteins
• C. Fats
• D. Vitamins

Answer: C. Fats

Explanation: Fats provide the highest amount of energy per unit mass compared to carbohydrates and proteins.

173. Genetic engineering is

• A. Alteration of genes
• B. Alteration of DNA
• C. Alteration of chromosomes
• D. Alteration of genetic material

Answer: D. Alteration of genetic material

Explanation: Genetic engineering involves the direct manipulation or alteration of an organism’s genetic material.

174. Natural selection is

• A. Random
• B. Directional
• C. Non-directional
• D. Discontinuous

Answer: B. Directional

Explanation: Natural selection is a directional process, favoring individuals with traits that increase their survival and reproduction in a given environment.

175. Speciation of geographical isolation is known as

• A. Allopatric speciation
• B. Sympatric speciation
• C. Parapatric speciation
• D. Peripatric speciation

Answer: A. Allopatric speciation

Explanation: Allopatric speciation occurs when populations become geographically isolated, leading to the evolution of distinct species.

176. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good scientist?

• A. Objectivity
• B. Bias
• C. Curiosity
• D. Open-mindedness

Answer: B. Bias

Explanation: A good scientist strives for objectivity and avoids bias in their research and interpretations.

177. The aim of science education should be to

• A. Promote scientific literacy
• B. Develop scientific temperament
• C. Prepare students for scientific careers
• D. All of the above

Answer: D. All of the above

Explanation: Science education aims to promote scientific literacy, develop scientific temperament, and prepare students for scientific careers.

178. What is the main purpose of assessment in science education?

• A. To rank students
• B. To provide feedback for learning
• C. To compare schools
• D. To punish students for poor performance

Answer: B. To provide feedback for learning

Explanation: The main purpose of assessment in science education is to provide constructive feedback that helps students improve their learning.

179. Which of the following is a disadvantage of traditional lecture-based teaching in science?

• A. It is time-efficient
• B. It encourages active learning
• C. It can be boring for students
• D. It allows for coverage of a lot of content

Answer: C. It can be boring for students

Explanation: A significant disadvantage of traditional lecture-based teaching is that it can lead to passive learning and be unengaging for students.

180. The inquiry-based learning approach in science emphasizes

• A. Rote memorization of facts
• B. Teacher-centered instruction
• C. Student exploration and investigation
• D. Textbook reliance

Answer: C. Student exploration and investigation

Explanation: Inquiry-based learning in science focuses on students actively exploring questions, conducting investigations, and constructing their own understanding.