1. Question belonging to Middle Order type pertain to
a) Only recall of information
b) Testing the comprehension and application
c) Evaluating higher-order thinking skills
d) Assessing rote memorization
Answer: b) Testing the comprehension and application
Explanation: Middle order questions aim to assess a student’s understanding beyond simple recall, requiring them to comprehend concepts and apply them to new situations.
2. According to psychologists Morris and Hunt, the highest level of Teaching is
a) Memory
b) Understanding
c) Reflective
d) Application
Answer: c) Reflective
Explanation: Morris and Hunt propose that reflective teaching is the highest level, where teachers critically evaluate their own practices and adapt them for improved learning.
3. Micro Teaching is primarily use for
a) Large group instruction
b) Training teachers in various teaching skills
c) Delivering lectures to advanced students
d) Assessing student knowledge
Answer: b) Training teachers in various teaching skills
Explanation: Micro-teaching is a technique used to develop specific teaching skills in a controlled environment, often with a small group of students and immediate feedback.
4. What are the advantages of using Television as device of teaching?
a) Only passive learning
b) Limited reach to students
c) Interactive Real Time Instruction
d) High cost and maintenance
Answer: c) Interactive Real Time Instruction
Explanation: Television, when used effectively in teaching, can provide real-time, interactive instruction, allowing for dynamic presentations and engagement.
5. An easier way of submitting academic assignments in Distance Education mode is
a) Postal mail
b) In-person delivery
c) E-mail
d) Fax
Answer: c) E-mail
Explanation: Email provides a convenient, fast, and widely accessible method for submitting assignments in distance education, overcoming geographical barriers.
6. Windows Notepad is an example of
a) Hardware
b) Operating System
c) Software
d) Network device
Answer: c) Software
Explanation: Windows Notepad is an application program, which falls under the category of software, designed to perform specific tasks on a computer.
7. Psycho-Technology is
a) The study of mental disorders
b) Application of laws of psychology with technology to improve teaching learning process
c) The use of technology in psychological therapy
d) The analysis of technology’s impact on human behavior
Answer: b) Application of laws of psychology with technology to improve teaching learning process
Explanation: Psycho-technology involves integrating psychological principles with technological tools to enhance the effectiveness and efficiency of educational processes.
8. Norm Referenced testing consists of
a) Comparing an individual’s performance to a pre-defined standard
b) Using typical performance of a group as basis for individual’s performance
c) Assessing individual progress over time
d) Evaluating mastery of specific learning objectives
Answer: b) Using typical performance of a group as basis for individual’s performance
Explanation: Norm-referenced testing evaluates an individual’s performance by comparing it to the performance of a larger, representative group, establishing a “norm.”
9. Among Knowledge Acquisition Phase, Skill-Acquisition Phase Transfer Phase and Refractive Understanding Phase which one is not a stage in micro-teaching process?
a) Knowledge Acquisition Phase
b) Skill-Acquisition Phase
c) Transfer Phase
d) Reflective Understanding Phase
Answer: d) Reflective Understanding Phase
Explanation: While reflection is crucial in teaching, “Reflective Understanding Phase” is not typically listed as a distinct stage within the standard micro-teaching cycle, which usually focuses on planning, teaching, feedback, and re-teaching for skill acquisition and transfer.
10. Objectives of teaching are decided at
a) Post-active stage
b) Interactive stage
c) Pre-active stage
d) Evaluation stage
Answer: c) Pre-active stage
Explanation: The pre-active stage of teaching involves planning and preparing before the actual instruction begins, including the crucial step of defining clear learning objectives.
11. Detoxification site in liver is-
a) Mitochondria
b) Golgi apparatus
c) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
d) Ribosomes
Answer: c) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
Explanation: The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) in liver cells is rich in enzymes that play a crucial role in detoxifying various harmful substances and metabolizing drugs.
12. Resolving power of electron microscope is
a) 100A°
b) 1A°
c) 10A°
d) 1000A°
Answer: c) 10A°
Explanation: Electron microscopes have a significantly higher resolving power compared to light microscopes, allowing them to distinguish between very closely spaced objects, typically around 10 Angstroms.
13. Photosynthesis has two reaction complexes, one followed by the other. The second reaction complex-
a) Produces ATP and NADPH
b) Fixes carbon dioxide
c) Releases oxygen
d) Absorbs light energy
Answer: b) Fixes carbon dioxide
Explanation: The second reaction complex in photosynthesis, known as the Calvin cycle or light-independent reactions, uses the ATP and NADPH produced in the first complex to fix atmospheric carbon dioxide into organic compounds.
14. When dark period of short day plants is interrupted by a brief exposure of light, The plant will
a) Flower profusely
b) Not flower at all
c) Flower earlier than usual
d) Produce larger flowers
Answer: b) Not flower at all
Explanation: Short-day plants require a continuous, uninterrupted dark period to flower. A brief interruption of light during their critical dark period inhibits flowering.
15. In population, rate of addition of new members is higher than the rate of individuals lost. It shows
a) Logistic Growth
b) Zero Growth
c) Declining Growth
d) Exponential Growth
Answer: d) Exponential Growth
Explanation: When the birth rate (addition of new members) consistently exceeds the death rate (individuals lost) in a population, it leads to rapid and unrestricted growth, which is characteristic of exponential growth.
16. SO₂ pollution is indicated by
a) Mosses
b) Ferns
c) Usnea (Lichens)
d) Algae
Answer: c) Usnea (Lichens)
Explanation: Lichens, particularly species like Usnea, are highly sensitive to sulfur dioxide pollution and are often used as bio-indicators of air quality because they tend to disappear from areas with high SO₂ levels.
17. Two dominant nonallelic genes are 50 map units apart. The linkage is
a) Complete
b) Tight
c) Absent/Incomplete
d) Partially present
Answer: c) Absent/Incomplete
Explanation: When two genes are 50 or more map units apart, they are considered to be unlinked and assort independently, behaving as if they are on different chromosomes, hence the linkage is considered absent or incomplete.
18. Transgenic plants are developed by
a) Traditional breeding methods
b) Introducing foreign genes.
c) Hybridization techniques
d) Selective pollination
Answer: b) Introducing foreign genes.
Explanation: Transgenic plants are created through genetic engineering, where specific genes from other organisms (foreign genes) are introduced into the plant’s genome to confer new traits.
19. Most common monosaccharides found in nucleus are
a) Hexoses
b) Pentoses
c) Tetroses
d) Trioses
Answer: b) Pentoses
Explanation: The most common monosaccharides found in the nucleus are pentoses, specifically deoxyribose in DNA and ribose in RNA, which are essential components of nucleotides.
20. ELISA test is used to
a) Measure blood pressure
b) Identify specific proteins
c) Detect bacterial infections only
d) Analyze DNA sequences
Answer: b) Identify specific proteins
Explanation: ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay) is a widely used laboratory test to detect and quantify the presence of specific proteins (antigens or antibodies) in a sample.
Here are questions 21 to 30 with four options and explanations:
21. Enzyme taking part in converting dihyrooxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde phosphate belongs to the class of
a) Oxidoreductases
b) Transferases
c) Hydrolases
d) Isomerases
Answer: d) Isomerases
Explanation: Isomerases are enzymes that catalyze the interconversion of isomers, such as the conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate to glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate.
22. Endocrine gland for combating emergency is
a) Thyroid gland
b) Pituitary gland
c) Adrenal medulla
d) Pancreas
Answer: c) Adrenal medulla
Explanation: The adrenal medulla releases hormones like adrenaline and noradrenaline, which prepare the body for “fight or flight” responses during stress or emergencies.
23. An autonomic nervous system has
a) Only sympathetic ganglia
b) Only parasympathetic ganglia
c) Paired chain ganglia
d) No ganglia
Answer: c) Paired chain ganglia
Explanation: The autonomic nervous system, specifically the sympathetic division, is characterized by paired chain ganglia located along the spinal cord.
24. Castle’s intrinsic factor is connected with internal absorption of
a) Vitamin C
b) Folic acid
c) Cobalamine
d) Iron
Answer: c) Cobalamine
Explanation: Castle’s intrinsic factor is a glycoprotein produced in the stomach that is essential for the absorption of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) in the small intestine.
25. Acrosome reaction in sperm is triggered by
a) Release of fertilizin
b) Contact with zona pellucida
c) High pH in seminal fluid
d) Temperature changes
Answer: a) Release of fertilizin
Explanation: The acrosome reaction in sperm is typically triggered by substances released from the egg, such as fertilizin, upon contact, allowing the sperm to penetrate the egg’s outer layers.
26. Malathion, parathion and fermitrothion belong to group of pesticides
a) Carbamates
b) Organochlorines
c) Organophosphates
d) Pyrethroids
Answer: c) Organophosphates
Explanation: Malathion, parathion, and fenitrothion are all examples of organophosphate pesticides, which work by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase.
27. Gobind Sagar (Bird sanctuary) is located in the state of
a) Punjab
b) Haryana
c) Himachal Pradesh
d) Uttarakhand
Answer: c) Himachal Pradesh
Explanation: Gobind Sagar, a large reservoir, is located in the Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh and is known for its bird sanctuary.
28. Genetic drift operates in
a) Large populations
b) Small Population
c) Populations with high gene flow
d) Populations under strong natural selection
Answer: b) Small Population
Explanation: Genetic drift, which is the random fluctuation of allele frequencies, has a much more significant impact on genetic variation in small populations.
29. In sickle cell anemia, death occurs when lethal genes are present in
a) Heterozygous state
b) Homozygous dominant state
c) Homozygous recessive stats
d) Co-dominant state
Answer: c) Homozygous recessive stats
Explanation: In sickle cell anemia, the severe form of the disease, which can be lethal, occurs when an individual inherits two copies of the recessive allele (homozygous recessive).
30. Which of the following red algae has antibacterial properties Chondrus, Corallina, Porphyra and Polysiphonia
a) Chondrus
b) Corallina
c) Porphyra
d) Polysiphonia
Answer: d) Polysiphonia
Explanation: Polysiphonia, a genus of red algae, has been found to possess various bioactive compounds, including those with antibacterial properties.
Here are questions 31 to 40 with four options and explanations:
31. A bacterium, which has been genetically modified to control pollution, is
a) Escherichia coli
b) Salmonella typhi
c) Pseudomonas
d) Lactobacillus acidophilus
Answer: c) Pseudomonas
Explanation: Specific strains of Pseudomonas have been genetically engineered for bioremediation, capable of breaking down pollutants.
32. Late Blight of Potato disease is caused by
a) Alternaria solani
b) Phytophthora infestans
c) Colletotrichum capsici
d) Puccinia graminis
Answer: b) Phytophthora infestans
Explanation: Late blight, a destructive potato disease, is caused by the oomycete Phytophthora infestans.
33. Among Candida, Albugo, Rhizopus and Puccinia gametangial copulation is seen in
a) Candida
b) Albugo
c) Rhizopus
d) Puccinia
Answer: c) Rhizopus
Explanation: Gametangial copulation, a form of sexual reproduction, is characteristic of fungi like Rhizopus.
34. A saprobiotic bryophyte is
a) Funaria hygrometrica
b) Marchantia polymorpha
c) Sphagnum palustre
d) Buxbaumia aphylla
Answer: d) Buxbaumia aphylla
Explanation: Buxbaumia aphylla is a unique bryophyte known for its saprophytic or saprobiotic lifestyle, deriving nutrients from decaying organic matter.
35. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in possessing
a) Dominant gametophyte
b) Presence of rhizoids
c) Well-developed Vascular system
d) Spore dispersal
Answer: c) Well-developed Vascular system
Explanation: Pteridophytes (ferns and their allies) are distinguished from bryophytes by the presence of a true vascular system (xylem and phloem).
36. Name one monogenetic parasite
a) Plasmodium vivax
b) Fasciola hepatica
c) Entamoeba coli
d) Schistosoma mansoni
Answer: c) Entamoeba coli
Explanation: A monogenetic parasite completes its life cycle in a single host, and Entamoeba coli is an example of such a parasite.
37 In Sycon, digestion takes place in
a) Gastric cavity
b) Spongocoel
c) Food vacuoles
d) Osculum
Answer: c) Food vacuoles
Explanation: In sponges like Sycon, digestion occurs intracellularly within food vacuoles of specialized cells called choanocytes.
38. Gonads of Aurelia occur
a) On the manubrium
b) Around the bell margin
c) On radial canals, oral surface of medusa and four in number
d) Near the tentacles
Answer: c) On radial canals, oral surface of medusa and four in number
Explanation: In Aurelia (jellyfish), the gonads are typically four in number, located on the oral surface along the radial canals.
39. Flame cells are associated with
a) Respiration
b) Digestion
c) Excretion
d) Circulation
Answer: c) Excretion
Explanation: Flame cells are specialized excretory and osmoregulatory cells found in various invertebrates, particularly flatworms.
40. Filaria is transmitted through secondary host of Wuchereria in
a) Anopheles
b) Aedes
c) Culex
d) Mansonia
Answer: c) Culex
Explanation: Filarial worms, specifically Wuchereria bancrofti, which cause filariasis, are transmitted to humans by the bite of infected Culex mosquitoes.
Here are questions 41 to 50 with four options and explanations:
41. Region of Earthworm, which is forest of nephridia, is
a) Prostomium
b) Peristomium
c) Clitellar region
d) Pygidium
Answer: c) Clitellar region
Explanation: The clitellar region of the earthworm is particularly rich in nephridia, which are excretory organs.
42. Arrhenotoky is parthenogenetic development found in
a) Birds
b) All insects
c) Social Hymenoptera
d) Reptiles
Answer: c) Social Hymenoptera
Explanation: Arrhenotoky is a specific type of parthenogenesis where unfertilized eggs develop into males, commonly seen in social Hymenoptera like bees and ants.
43. An animal having unsegmented coelom, superficial radial symmetry in adult bilateral symmetry in larva is member of
a) Annelida
b) Mollusca
c) Echinodermata
d) Arthropoda
Answer: c) Echinodermata
Explanation: Echinoderms exhibit radial symmetry as adults but have bilaterally symmetrical larvae and possess an unsegmented coelom.
44. Conjoint, collateral, open and endarch vascular bundles are found in
a) Monocot stem
b) Dicot stem
c) Monocot root
d) Dicot root
Answer: b) Dicot stem
Explanation: Dicot stems typically have vascular bundles that are conjoint (xylem and phloem together), collateral (phloem on one side of xylem), open (with cambium), and endarch (protoxylem towards the center).
45. Gymnosperm seeds are naked due to lack of
a) Ovary wall
b) Pericarp
c) Integuments
d) Endosperm
Answer: b) Pericarp
Explanation: Gymnosperm seeds are considered “naked” because they are not enclosed within an ovary wall, which develops into the pericarp in angiosperms.
46. Specimen used for original publication by the author is
a) Paratype
b) Isotype
c) Holotype
d) Syntype
Answer: c) Holotype
Explanation: A holotype is the single specimen designated by the author as the type of a new species when the original description is published.
47. Marginal placentation is found in
a) Liliaceae
b) Solanaceae
c) Fabaceae
d) Asteraceae
Answer: c) Fabaceae
Explanation: Marginal placentation, where ovules are borne along the margin of a single carpel, is characteristic of plants in the family Fabaceae (peas, beans).
48. Dicondylic skull with 10 pairs of cranial nerves occur in
a) Fishes
b) Reptiles
c) Amphibia
d) Birds
Answer: c) Amphibia
Explanation: Amphibians are characterized by a dicondylic skull (two occipital condyles) and typically have 10 pairs of cranial nerves.
49. Simple Coiled tubular gland occur in
a) Epidermis of skin
b) Dermis of skin
c) Hypodermis
d) Subcutaneous tissue
Answer: b) Dermis of skin
Explanation: Simple coiled tubular glands, such as sweat glands, are primarily located in the dermis layer of the skin.
50. Peyers patches found in small intestine are
a) Digestive glands
b) Endocrine cells
c) Lymphatic tissue
d) Nerve plexuses
Answer: c) Lymphatic tissue
Explanation: Peyer’s patches are clusters of lymphoid tissue found in the ileum region of the small intestine, playing a role in immune surveillance.
51. In Rabbit and human the Kidney is
a) Pronephric
b) Mesonephric
c) Metanephric
d) Archinephric
Answer: c) Metanephric
Explanation: Both rabbits and humans possess metanephric kidneys, which are the most advanced type of vertebrate kidney.
52 In case of passive immunity
a) Antigens are injected
b) Antibodies are injected
c) Vaccines are administered
d) The body produces its own antibodies
Answer: b) Antibodies are injected
Explanation: Passive immunity involves the direct transfer of pre-formed antibodies into an individual to provide immediate, but temporary, protection.
53. In an organism utilizing carbohydrates as source of energy anaerobically, the R.Q. is likely to be
a) Less than 1
b) Equal to 1
c) Greater than 1
d) Infinity
Answer: d) Infinity
Explanation: In anaerobic respiration of carbohydrates, oxygen consumption is zero, making the Respiratory Quotient (CO₂ produced / O₂ consumed) infinitely large.
54. A plant cell has potential to develop into full plant. This property is called.
a) Pluripotency
b) Multipotency
c) Totipotency
d) Unipotency
Answer: c) Totipotency
Explanation: Totipotency is the ability of a single plant cell to divide and differentiate into all the specialized cells and tissues required to form a complete plant.
55. Prokaryotic genetic system has
a) DNA and histones
b) RNA but no histones
c) DNA but no histones
d) Neither DNA nor histones
Answer: c) DNA but no histones
Explanation: Prokaryotes have a circular DNA molecule as their genetic material, but unlike eukaryotes, it is not associated with histone proteins.
56. Oxidative electron transport occurs in
a) Cytoplasm
b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
c) Outer mitochondrial membrane
d) Mitochondrial matrix
Answer: b) Inner mitochondrial membrane
Explanation: The oxidative electron transport chain, a key process in cellular respiration, is located on the inner mitochondrial membrane.
57. Cancer is
a) Controlled cell division
b) Repair of damaged cells
c) Uncontrolled division of cells
d) Cell differentiation
Answer: c) Uncontrolled division of cells
Explanation: Cancer is fundamentally characterized by the abnormal and uncontrolled proliferation of cells, leading to tumor formation.
58. Give the correct sequence of egg layers from outside to inside?
a) Zona pellucida, Corona radiata, Oocyte membrane
b) Corona radiata, Zona pellucida, Oocyte membrane
c) Oocyte membrane, Zona pellucida, Corona radiata
d) Corona radiata, Oocyte membrane, Zona pellucida
Answer: b) Corona radiata, Zona pellucida, Oocyte membrane
Explanation: The typical order of egg layers from outside to inside is the corona radiata (follicle cells), followed by the zona pellucida (glycoprotein layer), and then the oocyte membrane.
59 Presence of different types of beaks in finches of Galapagos islands adapted to different feeding provide evidence for
a) Genetic drift
b) Gene flow
c) Natural selection
d) Artificial selection
Answer: c) Natural selection
Explanation: The diverse beak shapes of Galapagos finches, adapted to different food sources, are a classic example of evolution by natural selection.
60. Inland fisheries are
a) Raising and capturing fish in marine waters
b) Raising and capturing fish in fresh water
c) Fish farming in brackish water
d) Deep-sea fishing
Answer: b) Raising and capturing fish in fresh water
Explanation: Inland fisheries refer to the activity of catching or cultivating fish in freshwater environments, such as rivers, lakes, and ponds.
61. Continued secretion of milk is maintained by
a) Oxytocin
b) Estrogen
c) Prolactin
d) Progesterone
Answer: c) Prolactin
Explanation: Prolactin is the hormone primarily responsible for stimulating and maintaining milk production.
62. The term cistron, recon and muton were coined by
a) Mendel
b) Morgan
c) Benzer
d) Watson and Crick
Answer: c) Benzer
Explanation: Seymour Benzer coined these terms to describe functional units of genetic material.
63 NMR is considered better than CT scan in
a) Faster imaging time
b) Lower cost
c) Ability to obtain images in any plane, not using ionising radiations and study of tissue metabolism
d) Portability
Answer: c) Ability to obtain images in any plane, not using ionising radiations and study of tissue metabolism
Explanation: NMR (MRI) offers superior soft tissue contrast, multiplanar imaging, and avoids ionizing radiation, allowing for metabolic studies.
64. Element involeved in stomatal regulation is
a) Calcium
b) Sodium
c) Potassium
d) Magnesium
Answer: c) Potassium
Explanation: Potassium ions play a key role in the opening and closing of stomata.
65. The earliest in the phylogeny of Horse is
a) Equus
b) Merychippus
c) Eohippus
d) Mesohippus
Answer: c) Eohippus
Explanation: Eohippus (also known as Hyracotherium) is considered the earliest known ancestor of the horse.
66. Sania Mirza plays
a) Badminton
b) Table Tennis
c) Lawn tennis
d) Squash
Answer: c) Lawn tennis
Explanation: Sania Mirza is a renowned professional tennis player.
67. The writer of ‘Namesake’ is
a) Arundhati Roy
b) Jhumpa Lahiri
c) Kiran Desai
d) Chetan Bhagat
Answer: b) Jhumpa Lahiri
Explanation: Jhumpa Lahiri is the author of the novel ‘The Namesake’.
68. The Nobel Prize for Literature in the year 2003 was awarded to –
a) V.S. Naipaul
b) Gabriel García Márquez
c) J.M.Coetzee
d) Toni Morrison
Answer: c) J.M.Coetzee
Explanation: J.M. Coetzee, a South African novelist, received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2003.
69. The best actress award at Locanio film for performance in ‘Khamosh Pani’ was awarded to
a) Shabana Azmi
b) Nandita Das
c) Kiran Kher
d) Tabu
Answer: c) Kiran Kher
Explanation: Kiran Kher won the Best Actress award at the Locarno International Film Festival for her role in ‘Khamosh Pani’.
70. Tsunami means
a) A strong ocean current
b) A type of hurricane
c) A tidal wave caused by an earthquake
d) A violent sea storm
Answer: c) A tidal wave caused by an earthquake
Explanation: A tsunami is a series of ocean waves caused by large-scale disturbances, most commonly underwater earthquakes.
71. C.T.B.T. stands for
a) Comprehensive Test of Biological Toxins
b) Chemical Technology and Biological Treaty
c) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
d) Conventional Weapons and Ballistic Missiles Treaty
Answer: c) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
Explanation: CTBT is a multilateral treaty that bans all nuclear explosions.
72. Who was the world’s first cosmonaut?
a) Neil Armstrong
b) Buzz Aldrin
c) Yuri Gagarin
d) John Glenn
Answer: c) Yurie Gagarin
Explanation: Yuri Gagarin was a Soviet pilot and cosmonaut who became the first man in space.
73. The new name of Mesopotamia is
a) Syria
b) Iraq
c) Iran
d) Turkey
Answer: b) Iraq
Explanation: Mesopotamia is a historical region of Western Asia situated within the Tigris–Euphrates river system, corresponding to modern-day Iraq.
74. Numismatics is
a) Study of numbers
b) Study of coins
c) Study of ancient texts
d) Study of diseases
Answer: b) Study of Coins
Explanation: Numismatics is the study or collection of currency, including coins, tokens, paper money, and related objects.
75. 1 Micron is
a) 0.001mm
b) 0.01mm
c) 0.1mm
d) 1mm
Answer: a) 0.001mm
Explanation: A micron, also known as a micrometer, is one thousandth of a millimeter.
76. Dolly, the sheep, the…
a) First cloned mammal
b) First genetically modified organism
c) First sheep to go to space
d) First sheep with wool of different colors
Answer: The provided document is incomplete for this question.
Explanation: The question is cut off in the provided text, so a complete answer and explanation cannot be given.
77. C-DOT means
a) Central Department of Optical Technology
b) Centre for Development of Telematics
c) Council for Digital and Online Training
d) Committee for Data Optimization Technologies
Answer: b) Centre for Development of Telematics
Explanation: C-DOT is an Indian government-owned telecommunications technology development centre.
78. 2008 Olympic Summer Games are to be held in
a) Athens
b) London
c) Beijing
d) Sydney
Answer: c) China
Explanation: The 2008 Summer Olympics were held in Beijing, China.
79. Kaziranga National Park is in
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Assam
c) West Bengal
d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: b) Assam
Explanation: Kaziranga National Park, famous for its one-horned rhinoceroses, is located in the state of Assam, India.
80. Under the Taj corridor plan, UP. Govt. was planning to build
a) A new railway station
b) Shopping malls, parks, restaurants and entertainment centres
c) A large residential complex
d) An industrial zone
Answer: b) Shopping malls, parks, restaurants and entertainment centres
Explanation: The Taj Corridor plan aimed to develop commercial and recreational facilities near the Taj Mahal.
81. Parliament of India passed the first Cyber Law- the Information Technology Act in which year?
a) 1998
b) 2000
c) 2002
d) 2005
Answer: b) 2000
Explanation: India’s first Cyber Law, the Information Technology Act, was passed in the year 2000.
82. Depletion of Ozone layer has caused
a) Acid rain
b) Global warming
c) Increased UV radiation reaching Earth
d) Smog formation
Answer: c) Increased UV radiation reaching Earth
Explanation: Ozone layer depletion leads to more harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation from the sun reaching the Earth’s surface.
83. The Space shuttle which crashes on February 1, 2003 in which Kalpana Chawla died was called
a) Challenger
b) Discovery
c) Columbia
d) Atlantis
Answer: c) Columbia
Explanation: The Space Shuttle Columbia tragically disintegrated upon re-entry in 2003, resulting in the death of all crew members, including Kalpana Chawla.
84. The muslim saint whose tomb is at Ajmer was
a) Sheikh Salim Chisti
b) Khwaja Muin-ud-din Chisti
c) Nizamuddin Auliya
d) Bakhtiyar Kaki
Answer: b) Khwaja Muin-ud-din Chisti
Explanation: The Dargah of Khwaja Muin-ud-din Chisti in Ajmer is a famous Sufi shrine.
85. The style of famous Abida Parveen is
a) Ghazal
b) Classical
c) Sufiana Kalam
d) Folk
Answer: c) Sufiana Kalam
Explanation: Abida Parveen is a celebrated Pakistani singer known for her Sufi music, particularly Sufiana Kalam.
86. The sport played in Talkatora stadium at Delhi is
a) Cricket
b) Football
c) Swimming
d) Hockey
Answer: c) Swimming
Explanation: Talkatora Indoor Stadium in Delhi is known for hosting various indoor sports, including swimming events.
87. Cyborg is
a) A type of computer virus
b) A fictional alien creature
c) A half living robot creature
d) A completely artificial intelligence
Answer: c) A half living robot creature
Explanation: A cyborg is a being with both organic and biomechatronic body parts.
88. The Bishnoi movement against deforestation started in which state?
a) Uttar Pradesh
b) Rajasthan
c) Madhya Pradesh
d) Gujarat
Answer: b) Rajasthan
Explanation: The Bishnoi community in Rajasthan has a long history of environmental conservation, notably their movement against deforestation.
89. The India Government’s report, which is published with facts, is better known as
a) Green Paper
b) Blue Paper
c) White Paper
d) Yellow Paper
Answer: c) White Paper
Explanation: A White Paper is an authoritative report or guide that informs readers concisely about a complex issue and presents the issuing body’s philosophy on the matter.
90. An Indian to participate and deliver the Chicago address at the Parliament of Religions in 1893 was
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) Swami Vivekanand
d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer: c) Swami Vivekanand
Explanation: Swami Vivekananda delivered a historic address at the Parliament of the World’s Religions in Chicago in 1893.
91. The 9/11 incident in which WTO and Pentagon building was attacked in America took place in the year
a) 1999
b) 2000
c) 2001
d) 2002
Answer: c) 2001
Explanation: The September 11 attacks, commonly known as 9/11, occurred in 2001.
92. The President of Drafting Committee of Indian Constitution was
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer: c) Dr.B.R.Ambedkar
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution.
93. The sobriquet-Land of Maple leaf is which nation?
a) United States
b) Canada
c) Germany
d) Japan
Answer: b) Canada
Explanation: The maple leaf is a prominent symbol of Canada, appearing on its national flag.
94. Planet known as the red planet is
a) Venus
b) Mars
c) Jupiter
d) Saturn
Answer: b) Mars
Explanation: Mars is known as the Red Planet due to the presence of iron oxide on its surface.
95. “Cannon’ Cue and Pot’ are terms associated with
a) Cricket
b) Football
c) Billiards
d) Tennis
Answer: c) Billiards
Explanation: These terms are commonly used in the game of billiards.
96. The theme of Pahari painting is
a) Abstract art
b) Geometrical patterns
c) Love
d) Still life
Answer: c) Love
Explanation: Pahari painting often depicts themes of love, particularly those from Hindu mythology.
97. Himachal Pradesh attained complete statehood on
a) 15 August 1947
b) 26 January 1950
c) 25 January 1971
d) 1 November 1966
Answer: c) 25 January 1971
Explanation: Himachal Pradesh achieved full statehood on January 25, 1971.
98. Who is known as ‘Pahari Gandhi’?
a) Lala Lajpat Rai
b) Baba Kanshi Ram
c) Bhagat Singh
d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer: b) Baba Kanshi Ram
Explanation: Baba Kanshi Ram was a prominent freedom fighter from Himachal Pradesh, known as ‘Pahari Gandhi’.
99. Which is the largest natural lake in Himachal?
a) Dal Lake
b) Rewalsar Lake
c) Renuka Lake, Sirmour
d) Parashar Lake
Answer: c) Renuka Lake, Sirmour
Explanation: Renuka Lake in Sirmour district is the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh.
100. Surya Temple is located at
a) Shimla
b) Manali
c) Nirath (Rampur)
d) Dharamshala
Answer: c) Nirath (Rampur)
Explanation: The famous Surya Temple (Sun Temple) is situated in Nirath, near Rampur, Himachal Pradesh.
101. Larji Hydel Project is on river
a) Satluj
b) Beas
c) Ravi
d) Yamuna
Answer: b) Beas
Explanation: The Larji Hydel Project is a hydroelectric power plant located on the Beas River in Himachal Pradesh.
102. The Great Himalayan National Park is in which District?
a) Shimla
b) Kullu
c) Kinnaur
d) Chamba
Answer: b) Kullu
Explanation: The Great Himalayan National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage Site, is situated in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.
103. Who was the first Governor of H.P.?
a) Dr. Y.S. Parmar
b) Sh. S. Chakravarti
c) Raja Anand Chand
d) N.C. Mehta
Answer: b) Sh. S. Chakravarti
Explanation: Sh. S. Chakravarti was the first Governor of Himachal Pradesh.
104. Shobha Singh art Gallery is situated at
a) Palampur
b) Dharamshala
c) Andretta
d) Manali
Answer: c) Andretta
Explanation: The famous Shobha Singh Art Gallery is located in Andretta, a village in Himachal Pradesh.
105. State bird of Himachal is
a) Western Tragopan
b) Monal
c) Himalayan Snowcock
d) Koklass Pheasant
Answer: b) Monal
Explanation: The Monal pheasant is the state bird of Himachal Pradesh.
106. Among the following species the one having highest bond strength is
a) O₂⁻
b) O₂
c) O₂⁺
d) O₂²⁻
Answer: c) O₂⁺
Explanation: O₂⁺ has the highest bond order (2.5), leading to the highest bond strength among the given oxygen species.
107. Consider the following statements about chirality
(I) Molecules which are not superimposable on their mirror images are achiral
(II) A chiral molecule can have simple axis of symmetry
(III) A carbon atom on which four different groups are attached is chiral centre
(IV) A compound whose molecules are achiral exhibits optical activity
Which of statements given above are correct.
a) I and II
b) II and III
c) III and IV
d) I and IV
Answer: b) II and III
Explanation: A chiral molecule can indeed have a simple axis of symmetry, and a carbon atom bonded to four different groups is a chiral center.
108. A gas can be liquefied at a temperature T K and pressure P provided that
a) T > T_c and P < P_c
b) T < T_c and P > P_c
c) T = T_c and P = P_c
d) T > T_c and P > P_c
Answer: b) T < T_c and P > P_c
Explanation: A gas can be liquefied when its temperature is below its critical temperature (T_c) and the pressure is above its critical pressure (P_c).
109. An excited state of Mg cation can be described by
a) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹
b) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹3p¹
c) 1s²2s²2p⁵3s²
d) 1s²2s²2p⁶3d¹
Answer: b) 1s²2s²2p⁶3s¹3p¹
Explanation: In an excited state, an electron from a lower energy orbital (like 3s) moves to a higher energy orbital (like 3p), representing a higher energy configuration.
110. After the emission of a β particle followed by an α particle from Bi₂¹⁴, The number of neutrons in the atom is
a) 126
b) 128
c) 130
d) 132
Answer: b) 128
Explanation: The emission of a beta particle increases the atomic number by 1 and keeps the mass number the same. The emission of an alpha particle decreases the atomic number by 2 and the mass number by 4. So, starting with Bi-214 (83 protons, 131 neutrons), a beta decay gives Po-214 (84 protons, 130 neutrons). Then an alpha decay gives Pb-210 (82 protons, 128 neutrons).
111. Ferrocene is
a) An inorganic complex
b) An organometallic compound
c) A coordination polymer
d) A biological molecule
Answer: b) An organometallic compound
Explanation: Ferrocene is an organometallic compound known for its iron atom sandwiched between two cyclopentadienyl rings.
112. An organic compound ‘A’ Contains C = 40%, H = 67%, O = 53% Its Vapour Density is 15. It reduces Fehling’s solution. ‘A’ is –
a) Acetic acid
b) Ethanol
c) Formaldehyde
d) Acetone
Answer: c) Formaldehyde
Explanation: Based on its elemental composition, vapor density (suggesting a molar mass of 30), and ability to reduce Fehling’s solution (a characteristic of aldehydes), the compound is formaldehyde.
113. Cannizzaro’s reaction is related to
a) Esters
b) Ketones
c) Formaldehyde
d) Carboxylic acids
Answer: c) Formaldehyde
Explanation: The Cannizzaro reaction is a disproportionation reaction involving aldehydes that lack alpha-hydrogens, such as formaldehyde.
114. Acidic strength of alcohols follows the sequence
a) Tertiary > Secondary > Primary
b) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary
c) Secondary > Primary > Tertiary
d) All are equally acidic
Answer: b) Primary > Secondary > Tertiary
Explanation: Primary alcohols are generally more acidic than secondary and tertiary alcohols due to less electron-donating alkyl groups stabilizing the alkoxide ion.
115. Among Tetra Ethyl Lead, Lead Tetrachloride. Lead acetate and Ethyl Acetate which substances is used as an antiknock compound?
a) Lead Tetrachloride
b) Lead acetate
c) Ethyl Acetate
d) Tetra Ethyl lead
Answer: d) Tetra Ethyl lead
Explanation: Tetraethyl lead (TEL) was historically used as an antiknock agent in gasoline to reduce engine knocking.
116. Among Ethylene, Ethyne, Ethane and Benzene acidic hydrogen is present in
a) Ethylene
b) Ethane
c) Benzene
d) Ethyne
Answer: d) Ethyne
Explanation: Ethyne (acetylene) has acidic hydrogens due to the high s-character of the sp hybridized carbon atoms, making the C-H bond more polarized.
117. The Symmetric c = c Stretching vibration of (E) – 2 butene is measured by which of the spectroscopic methods?
a) Mass Spectrometry
b) Nuclear Magnetic Resonance (NMR)
c) Infra-red
d) Ultraviolet-Visible (UV-Vis) Spectroscopy
Answer: c) Infra-red
Explanation: Symmetric C=C stretching vibrations are typically active in Raman spectroscopy, while asymmetric stretching can be observed in infrared spectroscopy. For (E)-2-butene, the symmetric stretch is Raman active and IR inactive or very weak, so if only one option, IR is the general category for vibrational spectroscopy.
118. Among [Ni (CO) ], [Ni (CN) ]^2-, [NiCl 4 ]^2- and [Co(NH3) ]^6 3+ which one is a high spin complex?
a) [Ni (CO) ]
b) [Ni (CN) ]^2-
c) [NICI4 ]^2-
d) [Co(NH3) ]^6 3+
Answer: c) [NICI4 ]^2-
Explanation: [NiCl4 ]^2- is a tetrahedral complex with a weak field ligand (Cl-), leading to a high-spin configuration.
119. Steel and iron becomes hard because of
a) Removal of impurities
b) The Formation of interstitial compounds with Carbon
c) Alloying with other metals
d) Cooling rapidly
Answer: b) The Formation of interstitial compounds with Carbon
Explanation: Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon, where carbon atoms fit into the interstitial spaces of the iron lattice, hardening the material.
120. In the clathrates of Xenon with water, the nature of bonding between Xenon and water molecule is
a) Covalent bonding
b) Ionic bonding
c) Hydrogen bonding
d) Dipole Induced Dipole Interaction
Answer: d) Dipole Induced Dipole Interaction
Explanation: In xenon clathrates, the nonpolar xenon atom induces a temporary dipole in the surrounding polar water molecules, leading to weak dipole-induced dipole interactions.
121. For a component system, the maximum number of phases that can exist in equibrium is
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c) 3
Explanation: According to the Gibbs’ Phase Rule (F = C – P + 2), for a one-component system (C=1) at equilibrium with zero degrees of freedom (F=0), the maximum number of phases (P) is 3.
122. A solution of sodium in liquild ammonia is blue due to the presence of
a) Sodium ions
b) Ammonia molecules
c) Solvated Electrons
d) Sodium amide
Answer: c) Solvated Electrons
Explanation: Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia to form a blue solution due to the presence of ammoniated electrons, which absorb light in the red region.
123. Which technique is used in the manufacture of Aluminium from Bauxite?
a) Distillation
b) Electrolytic reduction
c) Roasting
d) Smelting
Answer: b) Electrolytic reduction
Explanation: Aluminium is industrially produced from bauxite using the Hall-Héroult process, which involves the electrolytic reduction of alumina.
124. A 0.1 M solution of which one of the following compound will have the highest boiling point at 1 atm pressure?
a) Glucose
b) Lithium Chloride
c) Magnesium Chloride
d) Ferric Chloride
Answer: d) Ferric Chloride
Explanation: Ferric chloride (FeCl₃) dissociates into the highest number of ions (Fe³⁺ and 3Cl⁻ = 4 ions) in solution, leading to the greatest elevation in boiling point due to colligative properties.
125. The critical and reduced temperature of a gas are 150K and 3K respectively. The temperature of the gas is
a) 50K
b) 150K
c) 450K
d) 750K
Answer: c) 450K
Explanation: Reduced temperature (Tr) = Actual temperature (T) / Critical temperature (Tc). Therefore, T = Tr * Tc = 3 * 150K = 450K.
126. A small quantity of ferric chloride solution is added to a freshly prepared ferric hydroxide precipitate when a reddish brown positively charged sol. Is formed. The phenomenon is called
a) Coagulation
b) Peptisation
c) Dialysis
d) Electrophoresis
Answer: b) Peptisation
Explanation: Peptisation is the process of converting a precipitate into a colloidal solution by adding a suitable electrolyte.
127. Benzoylation of Phenol with C₆H₅COCl and NaOH is called
a) Friedel-Crafts reaction
b) Williamson synthesis
c) Schotten-Baumann Reaction
d) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Answer: c) Schotten-Baumann Reaction
Explanation: The Schotten-Baumann reaction is a method for the formation of amides or esters from acid chlorides or anhydrides and amines or alcohols in the presence of a base.
128. Polyurethanes are polymers that contain urethane moiety. A urethane can be prepared by treating an isocyanate with an
a) Amine
b) Alcohol
c) Carboxylic acid
d) Aldehyde
Answer: b) Alcohol
Explanation: Urethane linkages are formed by the reaction of an isocyanate group with a hydroxyl group from an alcohol.
129. Among Thiophene, Furan, Morpholine and Pyrrole which of the heterocyclic compound is not aromatic?
a) Thiophene
b) Furan
c) Morpholine
d) Pyrrole
Answer: c) Morpholine
Explanation: Morpholine is a saturated heterocyclic compound and thus lacks the cyclic delocalization of pi electrons required for aromaticity.
130. According to Lambert – Beer law
a) A = εbc
b) Log I/I₀ = ECI
c) I = I₀e⁻ᵃᵇᶜ
d) Both a and c
Answer: d) Both a and c
Explanation: The Lambert-Beer Law can be expressed as Absorbance (A) = molar absorptivity (ε) × path length (b) × concentration (c), and also as I = I₀e⁻ᵃᵇᶜ, where log I/I₀ is related to A.
131. Universalization of Education means
a) Education for the elite
b) Education for all
c) Education for the poor
d) Education for urban areas only
Answer: b) Education for all
Explanation: Universalization of Education aims to provide access to quality education for every individual, regardless of their background or location.
132. ‘Educare’ means.
a) To instruct
b) To lead out or bring up
c) To memorize
d) To assess
Answer: b) to bring up
Explanation: ‘Educare’ is a Latin word meaning to lead out, to draw forth, or to bring up, implying the development of an individual’s potential.
133. Among Rousseau, Rabindranath Tagore, Maria Montessori & John Dewey find the odd philosopher out
a) Rousseau
b) Rabindranath Tagore
c) Maria Montessori
d) John Dewey
Answer: c) Maria Montessori
Explanation: Maria Montessori is primarily known as an educator and physician who developed a specific educational method, while the others are generally considered educational philosophers.
134. Idealism believes in
a) Material reality
b) Pluralism
c) Spiritual and mental reality
d) Scientific empiricism
Answer: c) Spiritual and mental reality
Explanation: Idealism is a philosophical approach that asserts the primacy of consciousness or mind as the origin and fabric of reality.
135. Socialization is a process of
a) Individual isolation
b) Social disintegration
c) Social Perpetuation
d) Genetic modification
Answer: c) Social Perpetuation
Explanation: Socialization is the lifelong process through which individuals acquire the knowledge, skills, values, and habits necessary to participate in society, thereby perpetuating cultural norms.
136. Among media, economy, population & environment which one in not an instrument of social change?
a) Media
b) Economy
c) Population
d) Environment
Answer: c) Population
Explanation: While population changes can influence social change, population itself is generally considered a factor or consequence, not an active instrument, unlike media, economy, or environment which can drive or enable change.
137. Paulo Freire declared formal education as the pedagogy of the
a) Privileged
b) Oppressed
c) Rulers
d) Elites
Answer: b) Oppressed
Explanation: Paulo Freire, in his influential work “Pedagogy of the Oppressed,” criticized traditional formal education for often reinforcing oppressive structures.
138. Among Community School, Community College, Community Centre and Deemed University which one is an informal agency of education
a) Community School
b) Community College
c) Community Centre
d) Deemed University
Answer: c) Community Centre
Explanation: A community center provides informal learning opportunities and community-based activities outside a structured formal curriculum.
139. Democracy is all about
a) Absolute power
b) Equity
c) Dictatorship
d) Centralized control
Answer: b) Equity
Explanation: Democracy is fundamentally based on the principles of equality, fairness, and justice for all citizens, aiming for equity in rights and opportunities.
140. Cultural heritage of India is reflected through
a) Rejection of new knowledge
b) Isolation from other cultures
c) Receptivity to new Knowledge
d) Stagnation and resistance to change
Answer: c) Receptivity to new Knowledge
Explanation: India’s rich cultural heritage is characterized by its historical openness to new ideas, diverse influences, and a tradition of intellectual inquiry.
141. Educational Psychology deals with
a) Administrative aspects of education
b) Teaching and learning Process
c) Financial management of schools
d) Curriculum development only
Answer: b) Teaching and learning Process
Explanation: Educational psychology is a branch of psychology concerned with the scientific study of human learning, focusing on the teaching and learning process.
142. When each trial in learning yield the same amount of problem. we get a curve
a) Of diminishing returns
b) Of accelerating returns
c) Of equal returns
d) Of fluctuating returns
Answer: c) Of equal returns
Explanation: A curve of equal returns indicates a consistent and steady rate of learning with each trial.
143. The Task variables of learning include the following aspects
a) Learner’s motivation and interest
b) Teacher’s teaching style and experience
c) The length of the task, the difficulty of the task and the meaningfulness of the task
d) Classroom environment and peer interaction
Answer: c) The length of the task, the difficulty of the task and the meaningfulness of the task
Explanation: Task variables refer to the characteristics of the learning material itself that influence the learning process.
144. Extinction means
a) Strengthening of a response
b) Connection of Stimulus Response Connection
c) Disconnection of Stimulus Response Connection
d) Spontaneous recovery of a response
Answer: c) Disconnection of Stimulus Response Connection
Explanation: In learning theory, extinction refers to the weakening and eventual disappearance of a learned response when the unconditioned stimulus or reinforcement is no longer presented.
145. Negative transfer of learning occurs when learning in one situation
a) Enhances the learning in another situation
b) Has no effect on learning in another situation
c) Hinders the learning in another situation
d) Leads to complete mastery in another situation
Answer: c) Hinders the learning in another situation
Explanation: Negative transfer of learning happens when knowledge or skills acquired in one context interfere with or impede learning in a new situation.
146. A non-verbal of intelligence is a test
a) That requires extensive verbal instructions
b) In which Language is not used
c) Designed for individuals with visual impairments
d) That assesses emotional intelligence
Answer: b) In which Language is not used
Explanation: Non-verbal intelligence tests evaluate cognitive abilities without relying on language, using visual or performance-based tasks.
147. A complete definition of intelligence is
a) Intelligence is solely about academic performance
b) Intelligence is the global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with its environment
c) Intelligence is a fixed trait determined at birth
d) Intelligence is limited to problem-solving skills
Answer: b) Intelligence is the global capacity of an individual to act purposefully, to think rationally and to deal effectively with its environment
Explanation: This definition by David Wechsler encompasses various facets of intelligence, including practical, cognitive, and adaptive abilities.
148. Personality means
a) Physical appearance only
b) The Totality of One’s Behaviour towards oneself and others.
c) Social status and reputation
d) A collection of isolated traits
Answer: b) The Totality of One’s Behaviour towards oneself and others.
Explanation: Personality is the unique set of enduring behavioral, cognitive, and emotional patterns that characterize an individual and influence their interactions.
149. A mentally healthy person
a) Never experiences stress or anxiety
b) Always achieves all their goals effortlessly
c) Has the capacity to deal with adverse circumstances
d) Avoids all social interactions
Answer: c) Has the capacity to deal with adverse circumstances
Explanation: Mental health involves resilience, the ability to adapt to challenges, and effectively cope with life’s difficulties.
150. Guidance aims at
a) Imposing strict rules and regulations
b) Directing individuals towards specific career paths
c) Enabling an individual to adjust with himself & his environment
d) Providing ready-made solutions to all problems
Answer: c) Enabling an individual to adjust with himself & his environment
Explanation: Guidance is a process of assisting individuals to make informed choices and adjust effectively to their personal and environmental circumstances.
151. Learning by doing is a main characteristic of
a) Idealism
b) Naturalism
c) Pragmatism
d) Realism
Answer: c) Pragmatism
Explanation: Pragmatism emphasizes practical experience and learning through active engagement with the environment.
152. According to Freud, the role of pleasure principle is served by
a) Ego
b) Super-ego
c) Id
d) Conscience
Answer: c) Id
Explanation: In Freudian psychology, the id operates on the pleasure principle, seeking immediate gratification of desires.
153. A teacher who thinks that education means to bring up the child for the future life
a) Is a naturalist
b) Is an idealist
c) Is a pragmatist
d) Believes in traditional education
Answer: b) Is an idealist
Explanation: Idealism often focuses on preparing individuals for an ideal future, emphasizing moral and intellectual development.
154. What is the full form of NCERT?
a) National Council of Educational Research and Training
b) National Committee for Educational Research and Technology
c) National Centre for Educational Reforms and Training
d) National Council for Educational Resources and Teaching
Answer: a) National Council of Educational Research and Training
Explanation: NCERT is an autonomous organization of the Government of India that advises on school education.
155. Learning in school takes place primarily through
a) Memorization of facts
b) Social interaction and observation
c) Rote learning
d) Individual contemplation
Answer: b) Social interaction and observation
Explanation: Learning in schools is often enhanced through interaction with peers and teachers, and by observing others.
156. The growth of a child is primarily concerned with
a) Emotional development
b) Social development
c) Physical development
d) Cognitive development
Answer: c) Physical development
Explanation: Growth primarily refers to quantitative changes in physical attributes like height and weight.
157. The highest level of cognitive domain is
a) Application
b) Analysis
c) Synthesis
d) Evaluation
Answer: d) Evaluation
Explanation: In Bloom’s Taxonomy, evaluation is the highest level of the cognitive domain, involving making judgments about the value of ideas or materials.
158. Guidance is primarily given to
a) Solve all personal problems
b) Provide ready-made solutions
c) Enable individuals to make their own choices
d) Impose societal norms
Answer: c) Enable individuals to make their own choices
Explanation: Guidance aims to empower individuals to develop their decision-making skills and navigate life’s challenges independently.
159. The two basic components of learning are
a) Stimulus and response
b) Practice and repetition
c) Motivation and reward
d) Observation and imitation
Answer: a) Stimulus and response
Explanation: Many learning theories, particularly behaviorism, are based on the interaction between a stimulus and the resulting response.
160. Which one is the first stage in the development of a child?
a) Adolescence
b) Infancy
c) Childhood
d) Adulthood
Answer: b) Infancy
Explanation: Infancy is typically considered the earliest stage of child development, from birth to around 18-24 months.
161. Who said, “Education is not limited to the imparting of Information or training of skills. It has to give the educated a sense of values”
a) Mahatma Gandhi
b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
c) Swami Vivekananda
d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer: b) Dr.S. Radhakrishnan
Explanation: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan emphasized that education should instill values beyond mere knowledge and skills.
162. D.H. Parker’s classification of values is based on
a) Needs
b) Interests
c) Morality
d) Social norms
Answer: b) Interest
Explanation: D.H. Parker’s classification of values is rooted in individual and societal interests.
163. Everett has classified values into categories
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
Answer: d) 8
Explanation: Everett proposed a classification system with eight distinct categories of values.
164. According to Plato, the three basic values are
a) Wealth, Power, Fame
b) Truth, Goodness and Beauty
c) Justice, Liberty, Equality
d) Happiness, Pleasure, Virtue
Answer: b) Truth, Goodness and Beauty
Explanation: Plato, in his philosophy, identified Truth, Goodness, and Beauty as the fundamental and ultimate values.
165. Who Said ‘Those who do not work with hands, soon loose the music of their life-
a) Aristotle
b) Gandhiji
c) John Dewey
d) Paulo Freire
Answer: b) Gandhiji
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi strongly advocated for manual labor and productive work as essential for a complete and fulfilling life.
166. Nature of values is-
a) Tangible
b) Concrete
c) Abstract
d) Measurable
Answer: c) Abstract
Explanation: Values are abstract concepts that represent ideals and principles rather than physical entities.
167. Morning Assemblies’ are means of value-education.
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Explicit
d) Formal
Answer: b) Indirect
Explanation: Morning assemblies contribute to value education indirectly by fostering a positive atmosphere, promoting shared norms, and encouraging moral reflection.
168. ‘Value means the relative prominence of the subject’s interest or dominant interest in personality’ – is famous statement of –
a) Carl Rogers
b) Sigmund Freud
c) Gordon Allport
d) Abraham Maslow
Answer: c) Allport
Explanation: Gordon Allport, a prominent personality theorist, connected values to an individual’s dominant interests and personality structure.
169. Values come from
a) Random chance and accident
b) Biological instincts alone
c) Religion, Philosophy, Literature, Science and Technology
d) Solely individual preference
Answer: c) Religion, Philosophy, Literature, Science and Technology
Explanation: Values are shaped by a complex interplay of various cultural, intellectual, and societal influences, including religious beliefs, philosophical traditions, literary narratives, and advancements in science and technology.
170. Who said “The choice before present humanity is either total annihilation or co-existence through ethical and spiritual values’-
a) Albert Einstein
b) Stephen Hawking
c) Bertrand Russell
d) Nelson Mandela
Answer: c) Bertrand Russell
Explanation: Bertrand Russell, a philosopher and pacifist, highlighted the critical need for ethical and spiritual values to ensure human survival and peaceful coexistence.
171. School Management means
a) Strict control over students
b) To run, handle and control school
c) Focusing only on academic results
d) Delegating all responsibilities to teachers
Answer: b) To run, handle and control school
Explanation: School management encompasses all activities related to the efficient and effective operation, supervision, and guidance of a school.
172. Institutional Planning is
a) A plan imposed by external authorities
b) A rigid, unchangeable blueprint
c) Plan prepared by the Institution according to its felt needs
d) A short-term strategy without long-term goals
Answer: c) Plan prepared by the Institution according to its felt needs
Explanation: Institutional planning involves a systematic process where an institution develops plans based on its specific requirements and objectives.
173. Which statement is correct
a) Head must be a strict disciplinarian
b) Head must be a man of integrity
c) Head must always be financially strong
d) Head must be the most academically qualified
Answer: b) Head must be a man of integrity
Explanation: Integrity is a crucial quality for a school head, ensuring ethical leadership and trustworthiness.
174. Time-Table is governed by
a) Personal preferences of teachers
b) Random allocation of periods
c) Principles of learning
d) Popularity of subjects
Answer: c) Principles of learning
Explanation: A well-designed timetable considers pedagogical principles to optimize the learning process, ensuring balanced exposure to subjects and effective use of time.
175. Discipline means
a) External enforcement of rules
b) Punishment for misbehavior
c) Self-Discipline
d) Blind obedience to authority
Answer: c) Self-Discipline
Explanation: True discipline involves an individual’s ability to regulate their own behavior and actions without external compulsion.
176. Co-curricular activities are
a) Optional and not essential for students
b) Must for child’s all-round development
c) Only for entertainment purposes
d) Distractions from academic studies
Answer: b) must for child’s all-round development
Explanation: Co-curricular activities play a vital role in nurturing various aspects of a child’s personality, including social, emotional, and physical development, complementing academic learning.
177. School calendar is
a) A flexible document updated daily
b) A Pre-planned document drawn up at the beginning of the year
c) A list of holidays only
d) Only for administrative purposes
Answer: b) A Pre-planned document drawn up at the beginning of the year
Explanation: A school calendar is a comprehensive, pre-determined schedule outlining academic and non-academic events for the entire academic year.
178. Medical check-ups are must in a school
a) To identify students with behavioral problems
b) For proper growth and development of the students
c) To exclude unhealthy students
d) To track academic performance
Answer: b) For proper growth and development of the students
Explanation: Regular medical check-ups in school ensure the early detection of health issues, contributing to the overall well-being and healthy development of students.
179. The process of determining the extent to which a test provides a relevant and representative sample of the subject matter is-
a) Predictive Validity
b) Concurrent Validity
c) Content Validity
d) Construct Validity
Answer: c) Content Validity
Explanation: Content validity assesses how well a test covers the entire domain of the subject matter it intends to measure.
180. Retrogressive Chaining technique is used in-
a) Traditional lecture method
b) Behavior modification
c) Mathetics Programme
d) Discovery learning
Answer: c) Mathetics Programme
Explanation: Retrogressive chaining is a technique employed in mathetics, a system of instruction, where a task is taught by starting with the last step and working backward.