H.P. T.G.T. (NON-MEDICAL) EXAM. 2019
1. Number of significant figures in 0.050 is:
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Answer: C. Three
Explanation: The zero after the decimal point and a non-zero digit is significant.
2. The number of spherical nodes for 4d orbital is:
A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three
Answer: B. One
Explanation: The number of spherical nodes is given by the formula n−l−1, so for 4d, it is 4−2−1=1.
3. Among Rb, Na, K, Sc which element has the highest first ionization energy?
A. Rb
B. Na
C. K
D. Sc
Answer: D. Sc
Explanation: Ionization energy generally increases across a period and decreases down a group.
4. In which of the following all the bonds are not equal?
A. XeF4
B. BF4
C. C2H4
D. SiF4
Answer: C. C2H4
Explanation: In ethene (C2H4), there is a double bond between the carbon atoms and single bonds between carbon and hydrogen atoms, which have different bond lengths.
5. Gases deviate from ideal behaviour because molecules:
A. Have no volume
B. Do not interact
C. Attract each other
D. Are far apart
Answer: C. Attract each other
Explanation: Real gas molecules have intermolecular forces of attraction, causing them to deviate from ideal gas behavior.
6. In a face-centered cubic lattice, a unit cell is equally shared by how many faces?
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B. 6
Explanation: A face-centered cubic lattice has atoms at the corners and the center of each face. Each face is shared between two adjacent unit cells.
7. When a liquid boils there is an increase in:
A. Internal energy
B. Entropy
C. Temperature
D. Pressure
Answer: B. Entropy
Explanation: Boiling is a phase transition from liquid to gas, where the particles gain freedom of movement and randomness, leading to an increase in entropy.
8. Among CuSO4, KCl, NaCl, Na2CO3 which salt will give the highest pH in water?
A. CuSO4
B. KCl
C. NaCl
D. Na2CO3
Answer: D. Na2CO3
Explanation: Na2CO3 is a salt of a strong base (NaOH) and a weak acid (H2CO3), so its aqueous solution is basic and has the highest pH.
9. In which among these compounds- NH2OH, NH4NO3, N2H4, N3H an element exhibits two different oxidation states?
A. NH2OH
B. NH4NO3
C. N2H4
D. N3H
Answer: B. NH4NO3
Explanation: In NH4NO3, the nitrogen in the ammonium ion ($NH\_4^+$) has an oxidation state of -3, and the nitrogen in the nitrate ion ($NO\_3^−$) has an oxidation state of +5.
10. Oxidation state of oxygen in H2O2 is:
A. 0
B. +1
C. -1
D. -2
Answer: C. -1
Explanation: In peroxides like H2O2, the oxidation state of oxygen is -1.
11. Among LiOH, NaOH, KOH, CsOH which one is the strongest base?
A. LiOH
B. NaOH
C. KOH
D. CsOH
Answer: D. CsOH
Explanation: The basic strength of alkali metal hydroxides increases down the group, so CsOH is the strongest.
12. Among AlCl3, PbCl2, SnCl4, SnCl2 the most commonly used reducing agent is:
A. AlCl3
B. PbCl2
C. SnCl4
D. SnCl2
Answer: D. SnCl2
Explanation: SnCl2 is a good reducing agent because the tin can be easily oxidized from +2 to +4 oxidation state.
13. Among NCl3, AsCl3, SbCl3, PCl3 the molecule having the smallest bond angle is:
A. NCl3
B. AsCl3
C. SbCl3
D. PCl3
Answer: C. SbCl3
Explanation: As we go down the group from N to Sb, the electronegativity of the central atom decreases, leading to a smaller bond angle.
14. Naphthalene, a volatile liquid, is best purified by:
A. Filtration
B. Distillation
C. Sublimation
D. Evaporation
Answer: C. Sublimation
Explanation: Naphthalene undergoes sublimation, meaning it can transition directly from a solid to a gas, which allows for purification.
15. Alkaline KMnO4 converts ethylene into:
A. Ethane
B. Ethylene glycol
C. Ethanol
D. Ethanoic acid
Answer: B. Ethylene glycol
Explanation: Alkaline KMnO4 (Baeyer’s reagent) oxidizes the double bond in ethylene to form a diol, ethylene glycol.
16. The major source of CO pollution is:
A. Industrial emissions
B. Volcanic eruptions
C. Automobile exhaust
D. Forest fires
Answer: C. Automobile exhaust
Explanation: Incomplete combustion of fuel in vehicles is the primary source of carbon monoxide (CO) pollution.
17. Graphite is a good conductor of electricity due to the presence of:
A. Ionic bonds
B. Free valence electrons
C. Strong covalent bonds
D. Hydrogen bonds
Answer: B. Free valence electrons
Explanation: Graphite has delocalized pi-electrons that are free to move and conduct electricity.
18. A sugar syrup of weight 214.2 g contains 34.2 g of sugar. The molal concentration of solution is:
A. 0.55
B. 0.25
C. 0.75
D. 1.0
Answer: A. 0.55
Explanation: Molality is calculated as moles of solute per kg of solvent.
19. On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using platinum electrodes, the product obtained at the anode will be:
A. Hydrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Sulfur
D. Sulfur dioxide
Answer: B. Oxygen
Explanation: At the anode, water is oxidized in preference to sulfate ions, producing oxygen gas.
20. In the first order reaction, half of the reaction is completed in 100 seconds, The time for 99% of the reaction to occur will be:
A. 100 s
B. 200 s
C. 664.64 s
D. 990 s
Answer: C. 664.64 s
Explanation: For a first-order reaction, the time for 99% completion is approximately 6.64 times the half-life.
21. Among ΔG, ΔS, ΔH which one is less than zero during adsorption?
A. ΔG only
B. ΔS only
C. ΔH only
D. ΔG, ΔS, ΔH
Answer: D. ΔG, ΔS, ΔH
Explanation: Adsorption is a spontaneous process (ΔG<0), involves a decrease in randomness (ΔS<0), and is an exothermic process (ΔH<0).
22. Cassiterite is an ore of:
A. Fe
B. Al
C. Cu
D. Sn
Answer: D. Sn
Explanation: Cassiterite (SnO2) is the principal ore of tin.
23. Among NH4+, SiCl4, SF4, SO4^2− which one is not tetrahedral in shape?
A. NH4+
B. SiCl4
C. SF4
D. SO4^2−
Answer: C. SF4
Explanation: SF4 has a seesaw shape due to the presence of a lone pair on the central sulfur atom.
24. Among F-F, Cl-Cl, I-I, Br-Br which of the following bond is the strongest?
A. F-F
B. Cl-Cl
C. I-I
D. Br-Br
Answer: B. Cl-Cl
Explanation: The bond strength decreases down the halogen group, with the exception of F-F, which is weaker due to lone pair repulsion.
25. Photographic films and plates have an essential ingredient of:
A. Silver chloride
B. Silver bromide
C. Silver iodide
D. Silver nitrate
Answer: B. Silver bromide
Explanation: Silver bromide is used in photographic emulsions because it is sensitive to light.
26. d2sp3 hybridisation of the atomic orbitals gives:
A. Tetrahedral
B. Square planar
C . Trigonal bipyramidal
D. Octahedral
Answer: D. octahedral
Explanation: d2sp3 hybridization involves two d orbitals, one s orbital, and three p orbitals, leading to an octahedral geometry.
27. Among 3-Ethyl-2-methyl pentane, 2,3-dimethyl-hexane, 3,4-dimethyl pentane, 2-Erhyl-2-methyl pentane which is a correct name according to IUPAC system?
A. 3-Ethyl-2-methyl pentane
B. 2,3-dimethyl-hexane
C. 3,4-dimethyl pentane
D. 2-Erhyl-2-methyl pentane
Answer: A. 3-Ethyl-2methyl pentane
Explanation: This name follows the IUPAC rules for naming branched alkanes.
28. A primary alkyl halide would prefer to undergo:
A. SN1 reaction
B. SN2 reaction
C. E1 reaction
D. E2 reaction
Answer: B. SN2 reaction
Explanation: Primary alkyl halides are sterically unhindered, making them more susceptible to nucleophilic attack in an SN2 reaction.
29. The two possible stereo-structures of CH3CHOHCOOH which are optically active are called:
A. Diastereomers
B. Enantiomers
C. Epimers
D. Anomers
Answer: B. Enantiomers
Explanation: Lactic acid (CH3CHOHCOOH) has a chiral center, so its two non-superimposable mirror images are enantiomers.
30. Compounds which are used for the denaturation of alcohols are:
A. Acetone
B. Pyridine
C. Benzene
D. CH3OH and Pyridine
Answer: D. CH3OH and Pyridine
Explanation: These are toxic substances added to ethyl alcohol to make it unfit for consumption.
31. CH3CHO and C6H5CH2CHO can be distinguished chemically by:
A. Tollen’s test
B. Fehling’s test
C. Iodoform test
D. Benedict’s test
Answer: C. Iodoform test
Explanation: CH3CHO (acetaldehyde) has a methyl ketone group, which gives a positive iodoform test, while C6H5CH2CHO does not.
32. Through which of these reactions- Grignard reaction; Cannizzaro’s reaction; Aldol condensation, number of carbon atoms can be increased in the chain?
A. Cannizzaro’s reaction
B. Aldol condensation
C. Grignard reaction
D. All of the above
Answer: C. Grignard reaction
Explanation: Grignard reactions involve the addition of a carbon atom from the Grignard reagent to a carbonyl group, increasing the carbon chain length.
33. Which of these-Lysine, Tyrosine, Proline, Serine is a Heterocyclic amino acid?
A. Lysine
B. Tyrosine
C. Proline
D. Serine
Answer: C. Proline
Explanation: Proline has a cyclic structure with its side chain bonded to the nitrogen and alpha-carbon, making it heterocyclic.
34. Which of these-Teflon, Polystyrene, PVC, Dacron is a condensation polymer?
A. Teflon
B. Polystyrene
C. PVC
D. Dacron
Answer: D. Dacron
Explanation: Dacron (polyethylene terephthalate) is formed by the condensation polymerization of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.
35. The idealistic philosophy of education supports:
A. Moral ideas
B. Physical development
C. Scientific knowledge
D. Social skills
Answer: A. Moral ideas
Explanation: Idealism in education emphasizes the development of the mind, character, and moral values.
36. Which of the Vital Education; Physical Education; International Education; Mass-Making Education is not associated with Aurobindo Ghosh?
A. Vital Education
B. Physical Education
C. International Education
D. Mass-making Education
Answer: D. Mass-making Education
Explanation: Aurobindo Ghosh’s philosophy of education focused on integral education, which includes the physical, vital, mental, psychic, and spiritual aspects.
37. The school socializes the child by imparting socially desirable:
A. Experiences
B. Skills
C. Knowledge
D. Values
Answer: A. Experiences
Explanation: The school provides a platform for children to interact and learn social norms through experiences.
38. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan started in which year?
A. 2000
B. 2001
C. 2002
D. 2003
Answer: B. 2001
Explanation: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is a flagship program of the Government of India for the universalization of elementary education.
39. Performance based on learning is due to:
A. Growth
B. Maturation
C. Development
D. Heredity
Answer: C. Development
Explanation: Development is the overall process of growth and learning that leads to improved performance.
40. Which of the High Intelligence; High Understanding; High Creativity; High Motivation is not an aspect of giftedness?
A. High Intelligence
B. High Understanding
C. High Creativity
D. High Motivation
Answer: B. High understanding
Explanation: Giftedness is generally associated with high intelligence, creativity, and task commitment/motivation.
41. The concept of emotional intelligence does not involve the ability to:
A. Understand emotions
B. Manage emotions
C. Perceive emotions
D. Express emotions
Answer: A. Understand emotions
Explanation: Emotional intelligence involves understanding, perceiving, managing, and using emotions. The question has a slightly confusing answer in the source but “Understand emotions” is an aspect of it, so “does not involve” is inaccurate.
42. The ‘types’ of personality was discussed by:
A. Sigmund Freud
B. Carl Jung
C. Ivan Pavlov
D. B.F. Skinner
Answer: B. Carl Jung
Explanation: Carl Jung proposed a theory of personality types, including extroversion and introversion.
43. Teacher’s primary responsibility lies in:
A. Maintaining discipline
B. Planning educational experiences
C. Evaluating students
D. Managing classroom
Answer: B. Planning educational experiences
Explanation: A teacher’s core role is to design and deliver effective learning experiences for students.
44. The motivated teacher will have which attribute?
A. Rigid behavior
B. Goal directed behaviour
C. Autocratic style
D. Indifferent attitude
Answer: B. Goal directed behaviour
Explanation: Motivation leads to purposeful actions aimed at achieving specific goals.
45. 10+2+3 system of Education was introduced through:
A. National Policy on Education 1968
B. National Policy on Education 1986
C. Kothari Commission
D. Mudaliar Commission
Answer: B. National Policy on Education 1986
Explanation: The National Policy on Education of 1986 recommended the adoption of the 10+2+3 structure nationwide.
46. National Institute of Education is situated at:
A. Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Chennai
Answer: A. Delhi
Explanation: The National Institute of Education is a constituent unit of the NCERT and is located in New Delhi.
47. Which of the Accurate; Forceful; Precise; Permanent is not a merit of written communication?
A. Accurate
B. Forceful
C. Precise
D. Permanent
Answer: B. Forceful
Explanation: Written communication is generally less forceful than oral communication, which can use tone and gestures.
48. The best educational programme is one which is according to:
A. The teacher’s ability
B. The child’s ability
C. The school’s resources
D. The curriculum
Answer: B. the ability of the child
Explanation: Child-centered education focuses on tailoring learning experiences to the individual needs and abilities of the child.
49. According to Wood’s dispatch the medium of instruction should be:
A. English only
B. Vernacular only
C. English and Vernacular
D. Hindi only
Answer: C. English and Vernacular
Explanation: Wood’s Despatch of 1854 recommended the use of both English and vernacular languages for instruction.
50. What was the nature of the Harappan economy?
A. Rural
B. Urban
C. Nomadic
D. Pastoral
Answer: B. Urban
Explanation: The Harappan civilization is known for its well-planned cities and urban centers.
51. The earliest school of Indian Philosophy is:
A. Nyaya
B. Vaisheshika
C. Samkhya
D. Yoga
Answer: C. Samkhya
Explanation: Samkhya is one of the oldest and most prominent schools of Indian philosophy.
52. The capital of the Rashtrakutas was:
A. Badami
B. Manyakhet
C. Vatapi
D. Kalyani
Answer: B. Manyakhet
Explanation: Manyakhet (present-day Malkhed) served as the capital of the Rashtrakuta dynasty for a long time.
53. Which sultanate ruler put forward the view that the state should be based on the willing support of the Governed?
A. Iltutmish
B. Balban
C. Alauddin Khilji
D. Jalaluddin Khilji
Answer: D. Jalaluddin Khilji
Explanation: Jalaluddin Khilji was known for his policy of leniency and believed in governance with the support of the people.
54. The center of Bhakti movement in Maharashtra was:
A. Varanasi
B. Pandharpur
C. Pune
D. Nagpur
Answer: B. Pandharpur
Explanation: Pandharpur, with its Vithoba temple, was a major pilgrimage site and center for the Bhakti movement in Maharashtra.
55. In British India, the middle class in Bengal mainly consisted of:
A. Peasants
B. Artisans
C. Zamindars
D. Merchants
Answer: C. Zamindars
Explanation: The Permanent Settlement of 1793 created a new class of landlords (Zamindars) who became the core of the middle class in Bengal.
56. Dead Sea is an example of:
A. Fold valley
B. Rift valley
C. Glacial valley
D. River valley
Answer: B. Rift valley
Explanation: The Dead Sea lies in the Jordan Rift Valley, which is a tectonic plate boundary.
57. What is the percentage of insolation received by the earth’s surface?
A. 34%
B. 51%
C. 66%
D. 100%
Answer: B. 51%
Explanation: Approximately 51% of the solar radiation that reaches the top of the atmosphere is absorbed by the Earth’s surface.
58. High tides are also called:
A. Neap tides
B. Spring tides
C. Ebb tides
D. Flood tides
Answer: B. Spring tides
Explanation: Spring tides are especially strong tides that occur when the Earth, Sun, and Moon are aligned.
59. Ozone depletion is mainly caused by:
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Methane
C. Chlorofluorocarbons
D. Sulfur dioxide
Answer: C. Chlorofluorocarbons
Explanation: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are widely known to be the primary cause of ozone layer depletion.
60. Cardamom hills are also known as:
A. Anaimalai hills
B. Palani hills
C. Nilgiri hills
D. Eastern Ghats
Answer: B. Palani hills
Explanation: The Cardamom hills are located in the Western Ghats and are a part of the southern hill ranges, often associated with Palani hills.
61. South-west monsoon brings rain in India in the month of:
A. March
B. April
C. May
D. June
Answer: D. June
Explanation: The South-west monsoon season in India typically begins in June and lasts until September.
62. Red soil is found in areas of:
A. High rainfall
B. Low rainfall
C. Heavy snowfall
D. Coastal areas
Answer: B. Low rainfall
Explanation: Red soil is formed from the weathering of metamorphic and igneous rocks in areas with low rainfall.
63. Which of the Fir, Mahagony, Pine, Spruce trees is not of softwood variety?
A. Fir
B. Mahagony
C. Pine
D. Spruce
Answer: B. Mahagony
Explanation: Mahogany is a hardwood tree, while fir, pine, and spruce are softwood trees.
64. Betwa river joins which river?
A. Ganga
B. Yamuna
C. Chambal
D. Son
Answer: B. Yamuna
Explanation: The Betwa River is a tributary of the Yamuna River.
65. The Gulf of Cambay is associated with which fossil fuel?
A. Coal
B. Petroleum
C. Oil and Natural Gas
D. Lignite
Answer: C. Oil and Natural Gas
Explanation: The Gulf of Cambay basin is a major oil and gas producing region in India.
66. Vector of Kala azar disease is:
A. Mosquito
B. Sandfly
C. Housefly
D. Tick
Answer: B. Sandfly
Explanation: Kala-azar (visceral leishmaniasis) is a parasitic disease transmitted by the bite of infected sandflies.
67. Which of the Kite; Eagle; Emu; Fowl is a flightless bird?
A. Kite
B. Eagle
C. Emu
D. Fowl
Answer: C. Emu
Explanation: The emu is a large, flightless bird native to Australia.
68. The highest energy in terms of calories is produced by:
A. Carbohydrates
B. Proteins
C. Fat
D. Vitamins
Answer: C. Fat
Explanation: Fats provide the most energy per gram (approximately 9 calories/gram) compared to carbohydrates and proteins.
69. The formation of urea always takes place in:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Spleen
D. Lungs
Answer: B. Liver
Explanation: The urea cycle, which converts ammonia to urea, occurs in the liver.
70. Universal Adult Franchise shows that India is a country which is:
A. Democratic
B. Socialist
C. Secular
D. Republic
Answer: A. Democratic
Explanation: Universal adult franchise is a key feature of a democratic system, where all adult citizens have the right to vote.
71. Which schedule contains provisions regarding allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
A. Third Schedule
B. Fourth Schedule
C. Fifth Schedule
D. Sixth Schedule
Answer: B. Fourth Schedule
Explanation: The Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the States and Union Territories.
72. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950 curtailed:
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Religion
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
**Answer: B.
Right to Freedom
Explanation: This act allows for the detention of a person without trial, which is a restriction on the right to personal liberty and freedom.
73. The ordinance issued by President is applicable for the period of:
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
Answer: B. 6 months
Explanation: An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after the Parliament reassembles, so its maximum duration is six months and six weeks.
74. What can be the maximum number of members in Lok Sabha?
A. 545
B. 550
C. 552
D. 560
Answer: C. 552
Explanation: The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is 552 members, with 530 from states, 20 from UTs, and 2 nominated by the President.
75. Which of the Power and Transportation; Animal Husbandry; Cotton manufacturing; Cultivation of crops is part of the tertiary sector?
A. Animal Husbandry
B. Cotton manufacturing
C. Cultivation of crops
D. Power and transportation
Answer: D. Power and transportation
Explanation: The tertiary sector includes services, such as transportation and energy distribution.
76. Cheap money means:
A. High rate of interest
B. Low rate of interest
C. High inflation
D. Low inflation
Answer: B. Low rate of interest
Explanation: Cheap money refers to a policy where the central bank lowers interest rates to stimulate the economy.
77. Which bank was earlier known as Imperial Bank of India?
A. RBI
B. PNB
C. SBI
D. BOI
Answer: C. SBI
Explanation: The Imperial Bank of India was nationalized in 1955 and renamed the State Bank of India (SBI).
78. Indirect taxes by nature are:
A. Progressive
B. Proportional
C. Regressive
D. Neutral
Answer: C. Regressive
Explanation: Indirect taxes are regressive as they take a larger percentage of income from low-income earners than from high-income earners.
79. The cattle rearing along with farming is called:
A. Dairy farming
B. Mixed farming
C. Subsistence farming
D. Commercial farming
Answer: B. Mixed farming
Explanation: Mixed farming is a type of farming that involves both growing crops and raising livestock.
80. Himachal Pradesh became Union Territory in which year:
A. 1950
B. 1952
C. 1956
D. 1960
Answer: C. 1956
Explanation: Himachal Pradesh became a Union Territory on 1 November 1956.
81. Malana Valley is situated in which district of HP?
A. Kinnaur
B. Lahaul-Spiti
C. Kullu
D. Shimla
Answer: C. Kullu
Explanation: Malana is an ancient village in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.
82. Ravi river originated in which district of HP?
A. Chamba
B. Kangra
C. Kullu
D. Mandi
Answer: B. Kangra
Explanation: The Ravi River originates from the Bara Bhangal region of Kangra district.
83. Which of the Chandertal; Pandoh; Rewalsar; Renuka is not a natural lake?
A. Chandertal
B. Pandoh
C. Rewalsar
D. Renuka
Answer: B. Pandoh
Explanation: Pandoh is an artificial lake created by the Pandoh Dam on the Beas River.
84. Daranghati Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which district of HP?
A. Kinnaur
B. Shimla
C. Chamba
D. Kullu
Answer: B. Shimla
Explanation: Daranghati Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Shimla district of Himachal Pradesh.
85. In HP Handicrafts and Handloom Corporation Limited came into being in which year?
A. 1970
B. 1974
C. 1978
D. 1982
Answer: B. 1974
Explanation: The HP Handicrafts and Handloom Corporation was established in 1974.
86. Karchham Wangtoo hydroelectric project is built on which river?
A. Beas
B. Chenab
C. Satluj
D. Yamuna
Answer: C. Satluj
Explanation: The Karchham Wangtoo Hydroelectric Plant is a run-of-the-river project on the Satluj River.
87. Tabo monastery is located in which district of HP?
A. Kinnaur
B. Lahaul-Spiti
C. Chamba
D. Kullu
Answer: B. Lahaul-Spiti
Explanation: Tabo Monastery is an ancient Buddhist monastery located in the Lahaul and Spiti district.
88. The official language of Himachal Pradesh is:
A. Punjabi
B. Hindi
C. Pahari
D. English
Answer: B. Hindi
Explanation: Hindi is the official language of Himachal Pradesh.
89. The sacred fair of ‘Pata’ takes place in:
A. Chamba valley
B. Bhadravah valley
C. Kangra valley
D. Kullu valley
Answer: B. Bhadravah valley
Explanation: The ‘Pata’ fair is a religious event held in the Bhadravah valley.
90. Who has recently become the youngest Indian woman to win on Ladies European Tour?
A. Aditi Ashok
B. Diksha Dagar
C. Sharmila Nicollet
D. Vani Kapoor
Answer: B. Diksha Dagar
Explanation: Diksha Dagar won the South African Women’s Open in 2019 at the age of 18.
91. Who has been named as India’s first anti-corruption Ombudsman?
A. K.P.S. Gill
B. P.C. Ghose
C. Deepak Misra
D. A.K. Sikri
Answer: B. P.C.Ghose
Explanation: Pinaki Chandra Ghose was appointed as the first Lokpal (anti-corruption Ombudsman) of India in March 2019.
92. In a certain code CERTAIN is coded as XVIGZRM & SEQUENCE is coded as HVJFVMXV how would REQUIRED be coded?
A. IVJFRIVW
B. IVJFRIVV
C. IVJFRIWW
D. IVJFRVWX
Answer: A. IVJFRIVW
Explanation: This is a coding problem where each letter is replaced by its corresponding letter from the opposite end of the alphabet (A=Z, B=Y, etc.).
93. What comes in place of question mark P3C, R5F, T81, VI2L?
A. X170
B. X16O
C. X18M
D. X17M
Answer: A. X170
Explanation: The letters are two steps ahead (P, R, T, V, X). The numbers follow a sequence of +2, +3, +4, +5. The last letter also follows a sequence of +3.
94. His comments were almost irrelevant……..the topic of the evening.
A. on
B. to
C. with
D. for
Answer: B. to
Explanation: The correct preposition to use after ‘irrelevant’ is ‘to’.
95. Antonym of the word ‘Diligent’ is:
A. Energetic
B. Enthusiastic
C. Lazy
D. Hardworking
Answer: C. Lazy
Explanation: ‘Diligent’ means hardworking, so the antonym is ‘lazy’.
96. Meaning of the idiom ‘Lump in the throat’ is:
A. A joyful state
B. A painful state
C. A humorous state
D. An emotional state
Answer: D. An emotional state
Explanation: ‘Lump in the throat’ means a tight feeling in the throat caused by strong emotion.
97. योज्ञ, योगय, योग्य में से शुद्ध शब्द है। (Which is the correct word among योज्ञ, योगय, योग्य)
A. योज्ञ
B. योगय
C. योग्य
D. none of the above
Answer: C. योग्य
Explanation: ‘योग्य’ is the correct spelling in Hindi.
98. ‘आजीवन’ में समास है। (The samas in ‘आजीवन’ is.)
A. तत्पुरुष
B. कर्मधारय
C. अव्ययी भाव
D. द्वंद्व
Answer: C. अव्ययी भाव
Explanation: In ‘आजीवन’, the prefix ‘आ’ makes it an Avyayi Bhava Samas.
99. ‘नायक’ का संधि विच्छेद है। (The sandhi vichchhed of ‘नायक’ is.)
A. न+एक
B. नै+अक
C. ना+यक
D. न+यक
Answer: B. नै+अक
Explanation: ‘नायक’ is a result of a Sandhi (join) of the two words, ‘नै’ and ‘अक’.
100. Lightning was discovered by:
A. Isaac Newton
B. Benjamin Franklin
C. Thomas Edison
D. Albert Einstein
Answer: B. Benjamin Franklin
Explanation: Benjamin Franklin famously conducted the kite experiment to prove that lightning is a form of electricity.
101. The order of the radius of earth in metres is:
A. 10⁶
B. 10⁷
C. 10⁸
D. 10⁹
Answer: B. 10⁷
Explanation: The radius of the Earth is approximately 6,371 km, which is about 6.4 × 10⁶ m, so the order of magnitude is 10⁷.
102. Planck’s constant has the dimensions of:
A. Linear momentum
B. Angular momentum
C. Energy
D. Power
Answer: B. Angular momentum
Explanation: The dimensions of Planck’s constant (h) are energy times time, which is the same as the dimensions of angular momentum.
103. A man travels 3m due north, then turns at 90° and travels 4m due east. The magnitude of the displacement of the man is:
A. 3m
B. 4m
C. 5m
D. 7m
Answer: C. 5m
Explanation: The displacement is the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle with sides 3m and 4m. Using the Pythagorean theorem, the magnitude is √(3² + 4²) = 5m.
104. Maximum range of a projectile is 10m. What will be its maximum range if its velocity of projection is doubled?
A. 10m
B. 20m
C. 40m
D. 80m
Answer: C. 40m
Explanation: The maximum range is proportional to the square of the velocity of projection, so if the velocity is doubled, the range becomes four times.
105. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with the same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is:
A. 0
B. MV
C. 2 MV
D. -MV
Answer: C. 2 MV
Explanation: Impulse is the change in momentum. The initial momentum is MV and the final momentum is -MV, so the change is 2MV.
106. A weight lifter is holding a weight of 80kg on his shoulder for 10s. Work done by the lifter is:
A. 800 J
B. 80 J
C. 8 J
D. Zero
Answer: D. Zero
Explanation: Work is done only when there is displacement in the direction of the force. Since the weight is being held and not moved, no work is done.
107. The kinetic energy of a body increases by 300%. The linear momentum of the body increases by:
A. 100%
B. 200%
C. 300%
D. 400%
Answer: A. 100%
Explanation: If KE increases by 300%, it becomes 4 times the original value. Since KE is proportional to the square of momentum, momentum increases by √4 = 2 times, which is a 100% increase.
108. For which of these—a pencil; a bangle; a dice; a shotput—does the center of mass lie outside the body?
A. A pencil
B. A bangle
C. A dice
D. A shotput
Answer: B. A bangle
Explanation: The center of mass of a bangle is at its geometric center, which is in the empty space inside the bangle.
109. A cylinder is rolling down an inclined plane of inclination 60°. What is its acceleration?
A. g
B. g sin(θ)
C. (2/3)g
D. g/2
Answer: C. (2/3)g
Explanation: The acceleration of a rolling solid cylinder down an incline is a = (2/3)g sinθ.
110. Kepler’s second law is the consequence of the law of conservation of:
A. Linear momentum
B. Angular momentum
C. Energy
D. Mass
Answer: B. Angular momentum
Explanation: Kepler’s second law, which states that a planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times, is a direct consequence of the conservation of angular momentum.
111. Acceleration due to gravity ‘g’ at the center of the earth is:
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Zero
D. Negative
Answer: C. Zero
Explanation: At the center of the Earth, the gravitational forces from all parts of the Earth cancel each other out, resulting in zero net acceleration due to gravity.
112. What is the ratio of gravitational mass and inertial mass?
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 2:1
D. 1:4
Answer: A. 1:1
Explanation: According to the principle of equivalence in physics, the gravitational mass and inertial mass of a body are equal.
113. The Reynold’s number for fluid flow in a pipe depends on:
A. Density of the fluid
B. Viscosity of the fluid
C. Velocity of the fluid
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The Reynolds number is a dimensionless quantity that depends on the fluid’s density, velocity, characteristic linear dimension, and dynamic viscosity.
114. Oxygen freezes at −219°C. The Fahrenheit equivalent of this temperature is:
A. −362°F
B. −273°F
C. −452°F
D. −219°F
Answer: A. −362°F
Explanation: Using the formula F = (C × 9/5) + 32, we get (−219 × 1.8) + 32 = −394.2 + 32 = −362.2°F.
115. A black body is at a temperature of 500K. It emits energy at a rate which is proportional to:
A. 500
B. (500)²
C. (500)³
D. (500)⁴
Answer: D. (500)⁴
Explanation: According to the Stefan-Boltzmann law, the energy radiated per unit area by a black body is proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature.
116. The absorptivity of a perfectly black body is:
A. Zero
B. One
C. Infinite
D. Less than one
Answer: B. One
Explanation: A perfectly black body is an ideal object that absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation, so its absorptivity is 1.
117. The wettability of a surface by a liquid depends primarily on:
A. Surface tension
B. Angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
C. Viscosity of the liquid
D. Density of the liquid
Answer: B. Angle of contact between the surface and the liquid
Explanation: The angle of contact determines whether a liquid will spread out on a surface (wet it) or form droplets.
118. In which of these—Isothermal; Adiabatic; Isobaric; Isochoric thermodynamic processes of gas, the work done is maximum?
A. Isothermal
B. Adiabatic
C. Isobaric
D. Isochoric
Answer: C. Isobaric
Explanation: In an isobaric process (constant pressure), the work done is given by W = PΔV, which can be significant.
119. Velocity of sound in a gaseous medium:
A. Decreases with temperature
B. Increases with temperature
C. Does not depend on temperature
D. Decreases with pressure
Answer: B. Increases with temperature
Explanation: The velocity of sound in a gas is proportional to the square root of its absolute temperature.
120. The equation of state corresponding to 8kg of O₂ is:
A. PV = RT
B. PV = RT/4
C. PV = 2RT
D. PV = 4RT
Answer: B. PV=RT/4
Explanation: The number of moles (n) is mass/molar mass = 8000/32 = 250. This appears to be a misprint in the source, where the answer is PV=RT/4, which would mean 1/4 mole. The question likely refers to the number of moles.
121. In S.I., unit of permittivity is:
A. C²m⁻¹
B. C²N⁻¹m⁻²
C. Fm⁻¹
D. C²m⁻²
Answer: B. C²N⁻¹m⁻²
Explanation: The unit of permittivity (ϵ) can be derived from Coulomb’s law, F = (1/4πε) * (q₁q₂/r²).
122. The electric field inside a spherical shell of uniform surface charge density is:
A. Constant and non-zero
B. Proportional to radius
C. Zero
D. Varies with position
Answer: C. Zero
Explanation: According to Gauss’s law, the electric field inside a hollow conducting sphere is zero.
123. Van de Graaff generator is used to:
A. Produce high d.c. potential
B. Accelerate electrons
C. Detect X-rays
D. Measure electric charge
Answer: A. Produce high d.c. potential
Explanation: Van de Graaff generators are used to build up very high electrostatic potential differences for particle acceleration.
124. If a wire is stretched to make it 0.1% longer, its resistance will:
A. Increase by 0.1%
B. Increase by 0.2%
C. Decrease by 0.1%
D. Remain unchanged
Answer: B. increase by 0.2%
Explanation: For small changes in length, the percentage change in resistance is approximately twice the percentage change in length.
125. A heater coil is cut into two equal parts and only one part is now used in the heater. The heat generated will now be:
A. Halved
B. Doubled
C. Unchanged
D. Quadrupled
Answer: B. Doubled
Explanation: When the length is halved, the resistance is halved. Since Heat = V²/R, halving the resistance doubles the heat generated.
126. The internal resistance of a cell of e.m.f. 2 V is 0.1 Ω. It is connected to a resistance of 3.9 Ω. The voltage across the cell will be:
A. 2 V
B. 1.95 V
C. 1.8 V
D. 0.05 V
Answer: B. 1.95 V
Explanation: The current is I = E / (R+r) = 2 / (3.9 + 0.1) = 0.5 A. The voltage across the cell is V = IR = 0.5 A * 3.9 Ω = 1.95 V.
127. Which of the Carbon, Iron, Manganese, Silver has a negative temperature co-efficient?
A. Carbon
B. Iron
C. Manganese
D. Silver
Answer: A. Carbon
Explanation: Carbon is a semiconductor, and its resistance decreases as the temperature increases, giving it a negative temperature coefficient of resistance.
128. Kirchhoff’s laws are based on the conservation of:
A. Charge only
B. Energy only
C. Charge and energy
D. Power
Answer: C. Charge and energy
Explanation: Kirchhoff’s current law is based on the conservation of charge, and Kirchhoff’s voltage law is based on the conservation of energy.
129. Two heater wires of equal lengths are first connected in series and then in parallel. The ratio of heat produced in two cases is:
A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 4:1
Answer: C. 1:4
Explanation: In series, the total resistance is 2R, and in parallel, it is R/2. The heat produced is proportional to 1/R. So the ratio is 1/(2R) : 1/(R/2) = 1/2 : 2 = 1:4.
130. A kilowatt-hour is a unit of:
A. Power
B. Energy
C. Force
D. Momentum
Answer: B. Energy
Explanation: A kilowatt-hour (kWh) is a unit of energy, equivalent to 3.6 megajoules.
131. Susceptibility is positive for:
A. Diamagnetic substances
B. Paramagnetic substances
C. Ferromagnetic substances
D. Both B and C
Answer: C. Ferromagnetic substances
Explanation: Ferromagnetic substances have a large, positive magnetic susceptibility.
132. For formation of permanent magnets, the material should have:
A. High coercivity & low retentivity
B. Low coercivity & high retentivity
C. High coercivity & high retentivity
D. Low coercivity & low retentivity
Answer: C. High coercivity & high retentivity
Explanation: A good permanent magnet requires a material that can retain its magnetism (high retentivity) and resist demagnetization (high coercivity).
133. Tesla is a unit of magnetic:
A. Flux
B. Permeability
C. Induction
D. Field intensity
Answer: C. Induction
Explanation: The Tesla (T) is the SI unit of magnetic field strength or magnetic induction.
134. A dynamo works on the principle of:
A. Electromagnetic induction
B. Chemical effect of current
C. Heating effect of current
D. Magnetic effect of current
Answer: A. Electromagnetic induction
Explanation: A dynamo converts mechanical energy into electrical energy based on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
135. Thermopile is used for:
A. Measuring temperature
B. Measuring heat
C. Measuring and detecting the heat radiation
D. Generating heat
Answer: C. Measuring and detecting the heat radiation
Explanation: A thermopile is a device that converts thermal energy into electrical energy and is used to measure radiant heat.
136. Which of the following does not support the wave nature of light?
A. Interference
B. Diffraction
C. Polarization
D. Photoelectric effect
Answer: D. Photoelectric effect
Explanation: The photoelectric effect is explained by the particle nature of light (photons), not its wave nature.
137. What is conserved when light waves interfere?
A. Energy
B. Momentum
C. Both A and B
D. Nothing
Answer: A. Energy
Explanation: The total energy is conserved in interference. It is redistributed, with a decrease in intensity at destructive interference points and an increase at constructive interference points.
138. Two lenses having powers +6D and -4D are placed in contact. The power of the combination is:
A. +10 D
B. -2 D
C. +2 D
D. +4 D
Answer: C. +2 D
Explanation: The power of a combination of lenses is the sum of their individual powers, so +6D + (-4D) = +2D.
139. The type of bonds in a silicon crystal is:
A. Ionic
B. Metallic
C. Covalent
D. Hydrogen
Answer: C. Covalent
Explanation: Silicon forms a crystal lattice where each silicon atom is bonded to four others through covalent bonds.
140. If A and B are any two sets, then A – B is equal to:
A. A ∪ B
B. A ∩ B
C. A ∩ B′
D. A ∪ B′
Answer: B. A ∩ B
Explanation: The correct answer should be A ∩ B′ or A−B=A−(A∩B), but based on the provided source content, the answer is A ∩ B.
141. Domain of the function (3x+2)⁻¹ is:
A. all real numbers
B. x ≠ 0
C. x ≠ -2/3
D. x > -2/3
Answer: C. x ≠ -2/3
Explanation: The function is undefined when the denominator is zero, so 3x+2=0, which gives x = -2/3.
142. Maximum value of sin x + cos x is:
A. 1
B. √2
C. 2
D. 0
Answer: B. √2
Explanation: The maximum value of a sin x + b cos x is √(a² + b²). Here, a=1 and b=1, so the max value is √(1² + 1²) = √2.
143. Amplitude of 0 is:
A. 0
B. π
C. π/2
D. Not defined
Answer: D. Not defined
Explanation: The amplitude of a complex number is its angle in the complex plane. The number 0 has no defined angle.
144. If a, b, c are real numbers such that a > b, c > 0, then:
A. ac < bc
B. ac > bc
C. ac = bc
D. none of the above
Answer: B. ac > bc
Explanation: Multiplying an inequality by a positive number does not change the inequality sign.
145. Number of diagonals of a convex hexagon is:
A. 6
B. 9
C. 12
D. 15
Answer: B. 9
Explanation: The number of diagonals of an n-sided polygon is given by the formula n(n-3)/2. For a hexagon (n=6), this is 6(6-3)/2 = 9.
146. The number of dissimilar terms in the expansion of (x+y+z)⁶ is:
A. 7
B. 21
C. 28
D. 36
Answer: C. 28
Explanation: The number of terms in the expansion of (x+y+z)ⁿ is given by (n+1)(n+2)/2. For n=6, this is (6+1)(6+2)/2 = 7×8/2 = 28.
147. The 8th term of the sequence: 1, 1, 2, 4, 7, 13 is:
A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 44
Answer: D. 44
Explanation: This is a Tribonacci-like sequence where each term is the sum of the previous three terms. The sequence is 1, 1, 2, 4, 7, 13, 24, 44.
148. Slope of line which cuts off intercepts of equal lengths on the axes is:
A. 1
B. -1
C. 0
D. Not defined
Answer: B. -1
Explanation: The equation of the line is x/a + y/a = 1, which simplifies to x+y=a. The slope is -1.
149. The number of common tangents to the circles x²+y²-4x-6y-12=0 and x²+y²+6x+18y+26=0 is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C. 3
Explanation: To find the number of common tangents, you need to find the distance between the centers of the circles and compare it to the sum/difference of their radii.
150. The length of foot of perpendicular drawn from the point P(3,4,5) on y axis is:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. √34
Answer: D. √34
Explanation: The foot of the perpendicular on the y-axis from P(3,4,5) is (0,4,0). The distance between P(3,4,5) and (0,4,0) is √((3-0)²+(4-4)²+(5-0)²) = √(9+0+25) = √34.
151. If y = (sin x – cos x) / (sin x + cos x) then dy/dx at x=0 is:
A. 2
B. -2
C. 1
D. -1
Answer: B. -2
Explanation: Use the quotient rule to find the derivative and then substitute x=0.
152. The standard deviation of the data 6, 5, 9, 13, 12, 8, 10 is:
A. √5
B. √7
C. √(52/7)
D. √(48/7)
Answer: C. √(52/7)
Explanation: Calculate the mean, then the variance, and then the square root of the variance to get the standard deviation.
153. In a non-leap year, the probability of having 53 Tuesday or 53 Wednesday is:
A. 1/7
B. 2/7
C. 3/7
D. 4/7
Answer: B. 2/7
Explanation: A non-leap year has 365 days, which is 52 full weeks and 1 extra day. The extra day can be any day of the week, so the probability is 2/7.
154. If A ={2,3} B ={2,5} then the total number of relations defined from A to B is:
A. 2²
B. 2⁴
C. 2⁶
D. 2⁸
Answer: B. 2⁴
Explanation: The number of relations from set A with ‘m’ elements to set B with ‘n’ elements is 2^(mn). Here, m=2 and n=2, so 2^(2×2) = 2⁴.
155. The value of sin⁻¹x + cos⁻¹x is:
A. π/4
B. π/2
C. π
D. 2π
Answer: B. π/2
Explanation: This is a fundamental identity for inverse trigonometric functions.
156. A matrix 2×3 has how many elements?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: B. 6
Explanation: A matrix with dimensions m x n has m * n elements.
157. ∣cos50°sin50°sin10°cos10°∣ is equal to:
A. 0
B. 1
C. 1/2
D. -1/2
Answer: C. 1/2
Explanation: The determinant is cos50°cos10°-sin50°sin10° = cos(50°+10°) = cos60° = 1/2.
158. The second derivative of eᵐˣ is:
A. meᵐˣ
B. m²eᵐˣ
C. eᵐˣ
D. meˣ
Answer: B. m²eᵐˣ
Explanation: The first derivative is meᵐˣ and the second derivative is m(meᵐˣ) = m²eᵐˣ.
159. The slope of the tangent to the curve y = x³ – x at x=2 is:
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
Answer: B. 11
Explanation: The slope is the first derivative, dy/dx = 3x² – 1. At x=2, the slope is 3(2)² – 1 = 12 – 1 = 11.
160. ∫₀²⁄₃ dx/(4+9x²) equals:
A. π/12
B. π/6
C. π/24
D. π/4
Answer: C. π/24
Explanation: Use the integration formula for ∫dx/(a²+x²) = (1/a)tan⁻¹(x/a).
161. The area of the circle x²+y²=16 is:
A. 4π
B. 8π
C. 16π
D. 32π
Answer: C. 16π
Explanation: The equation of the circle is x²+y²=r², so r=4. The area is πr² = π(4²) = 16π.
162. The differential equation of all parabolas whose axes are parallel to axis of y satisfies:
A. d²y/dx² = 0
B. dy/dx = 0
C. d³y/dx³ = 0
D. d⁴y/dx⁴ = 0
Answer: C. d³y/dx³ = 0
Explanation: The equation of such parabolas is y = ax² + bx + c. Taking the derivative three times gives a constant, then zero.
163. The vectors a and b are perpendicular if and only if a⋅b is equal to:
A. 1
B. -1
C. 0
D. 2
Answer: C. 0
Explanation: The dot product of two perpendicular vectors is zero.
164. The angle between the lines 2x=3y=-z and 6x=-y=-4z is:
A. 45°
B. 60°
C. 90°
D. 180°
Answer: C. 90°
Explanation: Find the direction ratios of the lines and use the dot product formula for the angle between them. The dot product of their direction vectors is zero.
165. A dice is thrown once, then the probability of getting a number greater than 3 is:
A. 1/6
B. 1/3
C. 1/2
D. 2/3
Answer: C. 1/2
Explanation: The numbers greater than 3 are 4, 5, and 6. The probability is 3/6 = 1/2.
166. The mean and variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then the probability of 2 successes is:
A. 1/16
B. 28/256
C. 1/2
D. 1/8
Answer: B. 28/256
Explanation: For a binomial distribution, mean = np and variance = np(1-p). From the given values, find n and p and then calculate P(X=2) using the binomial probability formula.
167. The number of arbitrary constants in the particular solution of a differential equation of third order is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
Answer: D. 0
Explanation: A particular solution has no arbitrary constants, as their values are determined by initial or boundary conditions.
168. ∫aˣdx equals:
A. aˣ+c
B. aˣ/logₑa + c
C. xaˣ+c
D. logax+c
Answer: B. aˣ/logₑa + c
Explanation: This is a standard integration formula.
169. Area lying between the curves y²=4x and y=2 is:
A. 1/3
B. 2/3
C. 4/3
D. 1
Answer: A. 1/3
Explanation: The area is given by ∫₀² y²/4 dy.
170. If the concentration of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) in blood is 0.9gL⁻¹, what will be the molarity of glucose in blood?
A. 0.005m
B. 0.05m
C. 0.5m
D. 0.009m
Answer: A. 0.005m
Explanation: Molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol. Molarity = (mass/volume) / molar mass = (0.9g/L) / (180g/mol) = 0.005M.