HP TGT ( Arts ) 2020 -

HP TGT ( Arts ) 2020

Subject Area	Total Questions
English Language & Grammar	20
Hindi Language & Grammar	20
History (Indian & World)	20
Geography (Indian & World)	20
Indian Polity & Governance	20
Commerce, Economics & Management	19
Himachal Pradesh GK	17
General Science	10
Educational Psychology & Pedagogy	10
Current Affairs & Miscellaneous GK	8
Logical Reasoning	6
Total	170

1. The long term assets that have no physical existence but possess a great value is known as

(A) Current assets

(B) Fixed assets

(D) Investments

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Intangible assets, such as goodwill or patents, are non-physical assets that have significant value. 1

2. Net profit is computed in the

(A) P & L Accounts

(B) Balance Sheet

(D) Trading Account

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Profit and Loss (P&L) Account is specifically prepared to calculate the net profit or loss of a business for a period. 1

3. If Trial balance totals do not agree, the difference must be entered in

(A) The Profit and Loss Account

(B) A Nominal Account

(D) A Suspense Account

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A Suspense Account is a temporary account used to record an unknown difference in a trial balance until the error is found and corrected. 1

4. What do you mean by under conditions of perfect competition in product market?

(A) MRP=VMP

(B) MRP>VMP

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: In a perfectly competitive market, a firm hires labor up to the point where the Marginal Revenue Product (MRP) equals the Value of Marginal Product (VMP). 1

5. The reason for the decline in the child sex ratio in India is

(A) Low fertility rate

(B) Female foeticide

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Female foeticide, the practice of aborting female fetuses, is widely identified as the primary reason for the skewed child sex ratio in India. 1

6. What does Price Flooring mean?

(A) Shortages

(B) Surpluses

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A price floor is a government- or group-imposed price control or limit on how low a price can be charged for a product, which, if set above the equilibrium price, leads to surpluses. 1

7. The goal of a pure market economy is to meet the desire of

(A) Consumers

(B) Companies

(D) The Government

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A pure market economy is driven by supply and demand with minimal government intervention, aiming to satisfy the desires of consumers. 1

8. The Law of Demand means

(A) as the quantity demanded rises, the price rises.

(B) as the price rises, the quantity demanded rises.

(D) as supply rises, the demand rises.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Law of Demand states that, all other factors being equal, as the price of a good or service increases, consumer demand for it decreases. 1

9. Legal service ratio of equal to

(A) CRR/SLR

(B) CRR-SLR

(D) CRR + SLR

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Legal Reserve Ratio (LRR) is the sum of the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). 1

10. A direct tax is a tax which is imposed on

(A) corporations only

(B) individuals only

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Direct taxes, such as income tax and corporate tax, are levied directly on the income and profits of both individuals and corporations. 1

11. ‘अपने पांव पर खड़े होना’ मुहावरे का सही अर्थ चुनिए

(A) एक पैर पर खड़ा होना

(B) स्वार्थ सिद्ध करना

(D) इनमें से कोई नहीं

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The idiom ‘अपने पांव पर खड़े होना’ (to stand on one’s own feet) means to become self-reliant or independent. 1

12. Which cost is incurred even if the company is closed?

(A) Sunk cost

(B) Historical cost

(D) Imputed cost

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Shutdown costs are fixed costs that a company must incur even if it temporarily ceases operations. 1

13. Toy Manufacturing Companies use what type of costing?

(A) Multiple costing

(B) Process costing

(D) Batch costing

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Toy manufacturing typically involves producing identical items in distinct groups, making batch costing the most suitable method. 1

14. Which of the following is the characteristic of a business?

(A) Production

(B) Exchange of sale

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A business is characterized by all the listed elements: production, sale/exchange, and inherent risk. 1

15. Which of the following is not a Management function?

(A) Planning

(B) Staffing

(D) Controlling

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The core functions of management are Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, and Controlling; co-operating is an aspect of coordination, not a distinct function. 1

16. To have an effective delegation is important to have a responsibility along with

(A) Authority

(B) Manpower

(D) Promotion

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The principle of delegation requires that responsibility must be matched with the necessary authority to carry out the tasks. 1

17. Which of the following element is not a part of communication process?

(A) Decoding

(B) Communication

(D) Receiver

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The communication process includes elements like a sender, message, channel, receiver, and feedback; ‘communication’ itself is the overall process, not a component within it. 1

18. Jolivial respondents, focus grips and panel of respondents are categorised as

(A) Primary data sources

(B) Secondary data sources

(D) Pointed data sources

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Focus groups and respondent panels are methods for collecting new, original data, which are classified as primary data sources. 1

19. Policy formulation comes under which role?

(A) Top level Managers

(B) Middle level Managers

(D) All of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Formulating broad, strategic policies for the entire organization is a primary responsibility of top-level managers. 1

20. If we take goods for own use, we should :

(A) Debit Drawings Account: Credit Purchase Account

(B) Debit Drawings Account: Credit Stock Account

(D) Debit Purchase Account: Credit Drawings Account

Answer: (A)

Explanation: When goods are withdrawn for personal use, the Drawings account is debited, and the Purchase account is credited to reflect the reduction in goods available for sale. 1

21. The time of the singing of the birds has come. ‘Singing’ in this sentence is

(A) Participle

(B) Infinitive

(D) Adjective

Answer: (C)

Explanation: In this sentence, ‘singing’ functions as a noun (the object of the preposition ‘of’), which makes it a gerund. 1

22. It is but right to admit out faults. Which part of speech is but in the sentence?

(A) Noun

(B) Preposition

(D) Adverb

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Here, ‘but’ functions as an adverb meaning ‘only’ or ‘just’, modifying the adjective ‘right’. 1

23. A person who spends his money recklessly is’ :

(A) Parsimonious

(B) Prodigal

(D) Sparing

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A ‘prodigal’ is a person who spends money in a recklessly extravagant and wasteful manner. 1

24. Spot the correct spelling and mark the choice which gives the correct spelling:

(A) Litterateur

(B) Litteerature

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The correct spelling for a person devoted to the study or writing of literature is ‘Literateur’. 1

25. The synonym of Alleviates is

(A) To aggravate

(B) To dilute

(D) To worsen

Answer: (C)

Explanation: To ‘alleviate’ means to make a problem or suffering less severe, which is synonymous with ‘to lessen’. 1

26. The antonym of salient is

(A) Insignificant

(B) Noisy

(D) Chief

Answer: (A)

Explanation: ‘Salient’ means most noticeable or important; its direct opposite is ‘insignificant’. 1

27. When I called… his residence this morning, he was still in bed.

(A) into

(B) at

(D) for

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The preposition ‘at’ is correctly used to denote a specific point or location, such as a residence. 1

28. The idiom ‘French Leave’ means

(A) A person who does not take leave

(B) A long leave

(D) To leave without permission

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The idiom ‘French leave’ refers to an absence from work or duty without obtaining permission. 1

29. (A) Although they are living (B) in Delhi for the last five years (C) they have not seen the Qutab Minar.

(A) Although they are living

(B) in Delhi for the last five years

(D) No error

Answer: (A)

Explanation: For an action that started in the past and continues into the present, the present perfect continuous tense (“have been living”) should be used. 1

30. (A) United States and its allies were carrying (B) out their anti-Afghan-activities (C) in direct violation of the UN charter.

(A) United States and its allies were carrying

(B) out their anti-Afghan-activities

(D) No error

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The proper noun ‘United States’ requires the definite article ‘The’ before it. 1

31. (A) They are forbidden (B) not to enter the sacred place and (C) disobedience is punished with death.

(A) They are forbidden

(B) not to enter the sacred place and

(D) No error

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The verb ‘forbidden’ is inherently negative, so adding ‘not’ creates an incorrect double negative; it should be ‘forbidden to enter’. 1

32. (A) Rahul gave his (B) B.A. final examination last year (C) but failed to pass the examination.

(A) Rahul gave his

(B) B.A. final examination last year

(D) No error

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The correct idiom is to ‘take’ or ‘sit for’ an examination, not ‘give’ one; the verb should be ‘took’. 1

33. Choose the incorrect passivisation:

(A) Sweets are contained in this box.

(B) He has been appreciated.

(D) This novel is being sold like hot cakes.

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The verb ‘contain’ is a stative verb and is typically used in the active voice; the passive form ‘are contained in’ is grammatically awkward. 1

34. Choose the incorrect narration:

(A) He said to his mother, “Where did you find my books yesterday?”

(B) He proposed to his friends that we should enjoy a game of cricket.

(D) My mother wished me that I might live long.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The verb ‘inquired’ should be followed by ‘of’ when there is an object; the correct phrasing is ‘inquired of Ravi’. 1

35. Choose the correct sentence:

(A) Gandi was so compassionate that he could not hurt anybody.

(B) Will you lend me any money?

(D) He is too obedient not to carry out your orders.

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The structure ‘too…to’ implies a negative outcome, so ‘too obedient not to carry out’ correctly means he is so obedient that he certainly will carry out the orders. 1

36. Which of the following pairs is incorrect:

(A) Hare-Liveret

(B) Frog – Cygnet

(D) Elephant – Calf

Answer: (B)

Explanation: A young frog is a tadpole or froglet, whereas a cygnet is a young swan. 1

37. Choose the incorrect sentence where wrong modal is used :

(A) Had he started earlier, he would have caught the train.

(B) The authorities imposed lockdown so that Covid 19 might not transmit fast.

(D) My grandparents would go to temple daily.

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The correct negative form of the modal verb ‘need’ is ‘need not’ (without ‘s’) or ‘does not need to’. 1

38. The horse and carriage… at the door.

(A) is

(B) are

(D) have been

Answer: (A)

Explanation: When two nouns refer to a single idea or unit, like ‘the horse and carriage’, a singular verb is used. 1

39. The fair breeze blew, the white foam flew, The furrow followed free… Which figure of speech is used in the above line?

(A) Simile

(B) Metaphor

(D) Alliteration

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The repetition of the ‘f’ sound in “fair,” “foam,” “flew,” and “followed free” is a clear example of alliteration. 1

40. The correct transcription of the word, DHOBI is :

(A) /dǝubi/

(B) /dhobi/

(D) /daibi/

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The phonetic transcription /dʱoːbiː/ is most closely represented by the simplified option /dhobi/. 1

41. तत्सम शब्द छाँटिए

(A) भीत

(B) सूर्य

(D) दि

Answer: (B)

Explanation: ‘सूर्य’ (Surya) is a pure Sanskrit (Tatsam) word, while the others are its derived or colloquial forms. 1

42. ‘पीठ दिखाना’ मुहावरे का क्या अर्थ है?

(A) युद्ध से भाग जाना

(B) हराना

(D) साफ इन्कार करना

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The idiom ‘पीठ दिखाना’ (to show one’s back) literally means to flee from a battle or a difficult situation. 1

43. ‘आ’ स्वर कैसा है?

(A) संवृत

(B) अर्ध संवृत

(D) अवृतमुखी

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The vowel ‘आ’ (aa) is classified as an open vowel (विवृत स्वर) because the mouth is wide open during its pronunciation. 1

44. शब्द शक्ति के कितने प्रकार हैं?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

Answer: (B)

Explanation: In Hindi semantics, there are three types of word power (शब्द शक्ति): Abhidha (literal), Lakshana (figurative), and Vyanjana (suggestive). 1

45. ‘आँख न दीदा काढ़े कसीदा’ लोकोक्ति का अर्थ है

(A) उद्योग से सफलता होती है

(B) प्रत्यक्ष को प्रमाण क्या

(D) जबरदस्ती गले पड़ना

Answer: (C)

Explanation: This proverb describes someone boasting about skills they don’t possess, which is equivalent to ‘डीग मारना’ (to boast). 1

46. ‘नीहार’ का शाब्दिक अर्थ क्या है?

(A) ओस

(B) समीप

(D) भय

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The literal meaning of the Hindi word ‘नीहार’ (Nihar) is dew or frost. 1

47. ‘तटस्थ’ का विलोम शब्द कौन सा है?

(A) तरल

(B) ध्वस

(D) निश्चिंत

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The antonym of ‘तटस्थ’ (neutral or impartial) is ‘पक्षपाती’ (biased or partisan). 1

48. ‘मोर’ का पर्यायवाची है –

(A) वीचि

(B) कलापी

(D) केतन

Answer: (B)

Explanation: ‘कलापी’ (Kalapi) is a well-known synonym for ‘मोर’ (peacock) in Hindi. 1

49. ‘तिर्यक’ चिह्न कौन सा है?

(A) (=)

(B) (;)

(D) (>)

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The forward slash symbol (/) is known as the ‘तिर्यक चिह्न’ (oblique mark) in Hindi punctuation. 1

50. ‘जिसने ऋण चुका दिया हो’ को क्या कहते हैं?

(A) ऊऋण

(B) उत्तमर्ण

(D) निस्पृह

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The correct one-word substitution for a person who has paid off their debt is ‘उऋण’ (Urin). 1

51. आजन्म में समास है।

(A) तत्पुरुष

(B) कर्मधारय

(D) अव्ययीभाव

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The prefix ‘आ’ (aa) makes the word an adverbial compound, which is characteristic of an Avyayibhav samas. 1

52. ‘मिठास’ में प्रत्यय है

(A) स

(B) आस

(D) मि

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The word ‘मिठास’ (sweetness) is formed by adding the suffix ‘आस’ (aas) to the root word ‘मीठा’ (sweet). 1

53. ‘अध्यक्ष’ में उपसर्ग है

(A) अ

(B) अधि

(D) क्श

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The word ‘अध्यक्ष’ is formed from the prefix ‘अधि’ (adhi) and the root word ‘अक्ष’ (aksh). 1

54. पावक का संधि-विच्छेद है

(A) पा + अवक

(B) पौ + अक

(D) पो + वक

Answer: (B)

Explanation: This is an example of Ayadi Sandhi, where ‘पौ’ (pau) + ‘अक’ (ak) combines to form ‘पावक’ (paavak). 1

55. ‘मनु + अन्तर’ की संधि होती है

(A) मनुअन्तर

(B) मनोन्तर

(D) मनुन्तर

Answer: (C)

Explanation: This is an example of Yan Sandhi, where ‘उ’ (u) + ‘अ’ (a) combine to form ‘व’ (va), resulting in ‘मन्वंतर’. 1

56. शुद्ध शब्द कौन सा है?

(A) उज्वल

(B) उज्जवल

(D) उजवल

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The correct spelling for the word meaning ‘bright’ or ‘luminous’ is ‘उज्ज्वल’ (ujjval). 1

57. अशुद्ध शब्द छाँटिए :

(A) कवयित्री

(B) बुद्धिमति

(D) विधात्री

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The correct spelling for a female poet is ‘कवयित्री’ (kavayitri); the other words are spelled correctly. 1

58. ‘य’ का उच्चारण स्थान क्या है?

(A) कण्ठ्य

(B) मूर्धन्य

(D) दन्तय

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The consonant ‘य’ (ya) is pronounced with the tongue touching the palate, making it a palatal (तालव्य) sound. 1

59. ‘श’ व्यंजन कैसा व्यंजन है?

(A) स्पर्श

(B) सघोष

(D) महाप्राण

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The consonant ‘श’ (sha) is a sibilant that requires a strong exhalation of breath, classifying it as a Mahapran व्यंजन. 1

60. ‘तरंग’ का विशेषण है

(A) तरंगनी

(B) तरंगे

(D) तरंगणी

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The adjective form of ‘तरंग’ (wave) is ‘तरंगित’ (waved or undulating). 1

61. Inscriptions have greater importance than literary works as sources of history as they

(A) refer to ruling dynasties

(B) provide dates

(D) mention publie grants

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Inscriptions are often considered more reliable historical sources because they are contemporary records that frequently provide specific dates. 1

62. The remarkable characteristic about the arrangement of the houses in the Harappan cities is that they adopted

(A) grid system

(B) cross roads

(D) circular roads

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Harappan cities are famous for their sophisticated urban planning, which was based on a grid system of streets. 1

63. The most important functionary to assist the king in day-to-day administration in the Rigvedic period was the

(A) Law officer

(B) Tax collector

(D) Senani

Answer: (C)

Explanation: In the Rigvedic period, the Purohit (chief priest) was the king’s primary advisor in both religious and administrative matters. 1

64. The Vedangas consist of the

(A) Kalpa, Siksha, Nirukta, Vyakarna, Chandas, Jyotisha

(B) Kalpa, Siksha, Brahmana, Vyakarna, Chandas, Jyotisha

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The six Vedangas (limbs of the Veda) are Kalpa (ritual), Siksha (phonetics), Nirukta (etymology), Vyakarna (grammar), Chandas (meter), and Jyotisha (astronomy). 1

65. Who was also known as ‘Kunika’?

(A) Prasenajit

(B) Gautam Buddha

(D) Ajatashatru

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Ajatashatru, the king of the Haryanka dynasty of Magadha, was also known by the name ‘Kunika’. 1

66. The Jataks and the Dhammapada are found in which Nikaya of the Sutta Pitaka?

(A) Digha Nikaya

(B) Majjima Nikaya

(D) Khuddaka Nikaya

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Khuddaka Nikaya is a collection of miscellaneous smaller texts in the Sutta Pitaka, which includes the Jataka tales and the Dhammapada. 1

67. “It is not possible to record with accuracy the number of Mauryan cities on account of their multiplicity.” Who gave this statement?

(A) Megasthenes

(B) Heliodoros

(D) Justine

Answer: (A)

Explanation: This observation about the Mauryan empire is attributed to Megasthenes, the Greek ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, in his work ‘Indica’. 1

68. Edicts of Ashoka refer to the Barabar hills as the

(A) Kharavatika Hills

(B) Khalatika Hills

(D) Priyadarshi Hills

Answer: (B)

Explanation: In his edicts, Ashoka refers to the Barabar Hills, where he dedicated caves to the Ajivika sect, as the Khalatika Hills. 1

69. Dasakumara Charita was written by

(A) Dandin

(B) Bharavi

(D) Subandhu

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The ‘Dasakumara Charita’ (The Narrative of the Ten Princes) is a famous Sanskrit prose romance written by the 7th-century author Dandin. 1

70. In the Chola kingdom, what was the basic unit of exchange in the rural areas?

(A) Paddy

(B) Cowrie

(D) Gold coins

Answer: (A)

Explanation: In the largely agrarian economy of the Chola kingdom, paddy (rice) often served as a basic medium of exchange. 1

71. With whose accession to the throne there began an era of strong, centralised government?

(A) Iltutmish

(B) Balban

(D) Mahmud of Ghazni

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Ghiyas ud din Balban’s reign is known for consolidating the Sultanate and establishing a strong, centralized government with an emphasis on justice and order. 1

72. Sloping walls (batter) was a striking feature of Tughlaq architecture. It was absent in the buildings of

(A) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

(B) Muhammad-bin Tughlaq

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Sloping walls, or ‘batter’, is a characteristic feature found in the architecture of all major Tughlaq rulers, including Firoz Shah’s tomb. 1

73. The causes of the conflict between the Vijayanagar and Bahmani Kingdoms were

(A) political and cultural

(B) cultural and economic

(D) political, cultural and economic

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The long-standing conflict was driven by a combination of political ambition (control of territory), economic interests (the fertile Raichur Doab), and cultural differences. 1

74. Which Deccani sultan had the title of ‘Abla Baba’ or ‘Friend of the poor’?

(A) Ali Adil Shah

(B) Bahman Shah

(D) Ibrahim Adil Shah-II

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Ibrahim Adil Shah II of the Bijapur Sultanate was known for his benevolence and patronage of the arts, earning him the title ‘Abla Baba’ (Friend of the Poor). 1

75. The trinity of Bhakti movement in north India refers to

(A) Nanak, Kabir, Ravidas

(B) Nanak, Mira, Ravidas

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Guru Nanak, Kabir, and Ravidas are often considered the central figures or ‘trinity’ of the Nirguna Bhakti movement in North India. 1

76. Aurangzeb Deccan police did not result in

(A) (1) and (2)

(B) (2) only

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Aurangzeb’s prolonged Deccan campaigns led to a severe financial crisis, loss of manpower, and demoralization of troops, but they did not result in an improved agrarian system. 1

77. When Robert Clive reached Madras in 1744, he took a job as a

(A) writer

(B) trader

(D) soldier

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Robert Clive began his career in India in the service of the English East India Company as a ‘writer’, which was a term for a junior clerk. 1

78. Debendranath Tagore started

(A) Dharam Sabha

(B) Prarthana Samaj

(D) Tattvabodhini Sabha

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Debendranath Tagore founded the Tattvabodhini Sabha in 1839 to propagate the ideas of the Brahmo Samaj and rational thought. 1

79. Which was the first place captured by the Wahabis in the holy war against the Sikhs?

(A) Attock

(B) Lahore

(D) Amritsar

Answer: (C)

Explanation: In their campaign against the Sikh Empire, the Wahabi movement under Syed Ahmed Barelvi captured Peshawar in the late 1820s. 1

80. After the pact between Mahatma Gandhi and Lord Irwin in March 1931. many leaders became critical of Gandhiji’s leadership. What was the main reason?

(A) The militants gained importance.

(B) The rural masses were not to be included.

(D) The Civil Disobedience Movement was called off.

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A key term of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement, a decision that was criticized by more radical leaders. 1

81. The crust of the earth is composed of

(A) Silica and Aluminium

(B) Silica and Magnesium

(D) Nickel and Aluminium

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Earth’s continental crust is primarily composed of silica and alumina, often referred to by the acronym ‘SIAL’. 1

82. Which of the following forms of igneous rock constitutes the greatest body?

(A) Phacolith

(B) Lapolith

(D) Batholith

Answer: (D)

Explanation: A batholith is a very large mass of intrusive igneous rock that forms from cooled magma deep in the Earth’s crust, representing the largest type of pluton. 1

83. The depression formed at the mouth of a volcanic vent is called a

(A) crater

(B) caldera

(D) geyser cone

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A crater is the bowl-shaped depression at the top of a volcano formed by the explosive eruption of volcanic material. 1

84. Secondary earthquake waves can pass through

(A) solid materials

(B) liquid materials

(D) All of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Secondary (S-waves) are shear waves that can only propagate through solid materials, not through liquids or gases. 1

85. Inversion of temperature is

(A) increase of temperature with elevation

(B) decrease of temperature with elevation

(D) decrease of temperature with latitude

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A temperature inversion is an atmospheric condition where temperature increases with altitude, which is the reverse of the normal decrease. 1

86. Horse latitude is characterised by

(A) strong cyclones and low pressure

(B) calm conditions and low pressure

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The horse latitudes are subtropical regions known for calm winds and high atmospheric pressure. 1

87. Which of the following clouds make a halo around the sun and the moon?

(A) Cirro stratus clouds

(B) Cirrus clouds

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Halos around the sun or moon are caused by the refraction of light through ice crystals in high-altitude Cirrostratus clouds. 1

88. How much area of the oceans is covered by the continental shelves?

(A) 7.5 percent

(B) 15 percent

(D) 29.5 percent

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The continental shelves, the submerged extensions of continents, cover approximately 7.5% of the total ocean area. 1

89. Which of the following ocean currents is a part of The Gulf stream?

(A) Florida current

(B) Labrador current

(D) Canary current

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Florida Current is a thermal ocean current that flows from the Straits of Florida and is a primary contributor to the Gulf Stream system. 1

90. What is Eutrophication?

(A) Cutting of trees on a large scale

(B) Excessive accumulation of salt content in the soil

(D) All of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Eutrophication is the process of nutrient enrichment in a body of water, which causes a dense growth of plant life and death of animal life from lack of oxygen. 1

91. Maoris are the indigenous inhabitants of which country?

(A) China

(B) Australia

(D) New Zealand

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Māori are the indigenous Polynesian people of mainland New Zealand. 1

92. Which is the basic factor for dividing the world into major natural regions?

(A) Vegetation

(B) Climate

(D) Habitation

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Climate is the most fundamental factor used to classify the world’s major natural or biogeographical regions. 1

93. The largest city of Switzerland is

(A) Bern

(B) Zurich

(D) Lausanne

Answer: (B)

Explanation: While Bern is the capital, Zurich is the largest city in Switzerland by population. 1

94. The Shillong plateau has been separated from the main block of the Indian Plateau by a wide stretch of the alluvial lowland called the

(A) Burhanpur Gap

(B) Garo-Rajmahal Gap

(D) Rajmahal Hills

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Garo-Rajmahal Gap is the low-lying area that separates the Meghalaya (Shillong) Plateau from the main Peninsular Plateau of India. 1

95. Beyond Farakka, the main stream of the Ganga flows into Bangladesh by which name?

(A) Bhagirathi

(B) Meghna

(D) Padma

Answer: (D)

Explanation: After entering Bangladesh, the main branch of the Ganges river is known as the Padma. 1

96. Which of the following places in Rajasthan is likely to have the highest temperature on a day in June?

(A) Barmer

(B) Jaipur

(D) Udaipur

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Barmer, located in the Thar Desert region of western Rajasthan, typically experiences some of the highest temperatures in the state during June. 1

97. Which soil is rich in iron and aluminium compounds?

(A) Laterite soil

(B) Black soil

(D) Alluvial soil

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Laterite soil is formed in hot, wet tropical areas and is rich in iron and aluminum oxides, which give it a reddish color. 1

98. Zawar mines are famous for

(A) lead and zinc

(B) mica and bauxite

(D) sulphur and gypsum

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Zawar mines in Rajasthan are historically one of India’s most important sources of lead and zinc ores. 1

99. Which of the following projects comprises the Gandhi Sagar dam, The Jawahar Sagar dam and the Rana Pratap Sagar dam?

(A) Chambal project

(B) Damodar Valley project

(D) Machkund project

Answer: (A)

Explanation: These three dams are the major components of the Chambal Valley Project, a multi-purpose project on the Chambal River. 1

100. The leading producer of coffee in India is

(A) Karnataka

(B) Maharashtra

(D) Uttar Pradesh

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Karnataka is the largest coffee-producing state in India, accounting for the majority of the country’s total production. 1

101. The original Constitution of India is preserved in

(A) Archeological Survey of India

(B) President House

(D) Parliament House

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The original, handwritten copies of the Constitution of India are preserved in a special helium-filled case in the Library of the Parliament of India. 1

102. The words ‘Socialist and ‘Secular were added to the Preamble of Indian Constitution by which amendment?

(A) 1st

(B) 7th

(D) 44th

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. 1

103. No person shall be a citizen of India if he has

(A) Voluntarily acquired citizenship of another country

(B) Accepted employment in another country

(D) Lived in a foreign country for more than five years

Answer: (A)

Explanation: According to the Indian Citizenship Act, a person ceases to be a citizen of India if they voluntarily acquire the citizenship of another country. 1

104. Which of the following writs is sought to get an order of an authority quashed?

(A) Habeas Corpus

(B) Mandamus

(D) Quo Warranto

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to quash an order already passed by it. 1

105. Which Article of Indian Constitution ensures that Directive Principles of State Policy cannot be enforced by any court?

(A) Article 33

(B) Article 37

(D) Article 51-A

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Article 37 of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that the Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country but are not enforceable by any court. 1

106. The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the

(A) President

(B) Parliament

(D) Rajya Sabha

Answer: (C)

Explanation: According to Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha (House of the People). 1

107. What is the minimum age to become the Prime Minster of India if he or she is a member of Rajya Sabha?

(A) 25

(B) 30

(D) 45

Answer: (B)

Explanation: To be a member of the Rajya Sabha, the minimum age is 30 years, which would be the minimum age for a Prime Minister from that house. 1

108. How many members of the State Legislative Council are elected by the Assembly?

(A) 1/2 of the members

(B) 1/3 of the members

(D) 1/12 of the members

Answer: (B)

Explanation: As per Article 171 of the Constitution, one-third of the members of a state’s Legislative Council are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly. 1

109. The Supreme Court is empowered to settle election disputes of President and Vice President. This is its

(A) Miscellaneous Jurisdiction

(B) Advisory Jurisdiction

(D) Original Jurisdiction

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The power to settle disputes concerning the election of the President and Vice-President falls under the exclusive Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. 1

110. Which of the following is administrative functions(s) of a village panchayat?

(A) Maintenance of Road

(B) Providing sanitation and drainage

(D) All of these

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Village panchayats are responsible for a wide range of local administrative and civic functions, including all of the options listed. 1

111. During an emergency all of the following fundamental rights are suspended, except

(A) Freedom of assembly without arms

(B) Freedom of speech and expression

(D) Personal liberty

Answer: (D)

Explanation: According to Article 359, the rights under Articles 20 and 21 (which includes personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during an emergency. 1

112. Planning Commission of India was

(A) A Constitutional body

(B) An Executive body

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Planning Commission was established by a resolution of the Union Cabinet, making it a non-constitutional, non-statutory, or executive body. 1

113. Union Constitution Committee appointed by the constituent assembly was headed by

(A) Sardar Patel

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru. 1

114. Which Act formed the basis or ‘blue print’ of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Government of India Act, 1909

(B) Government of India Act, 1919

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935, was a lengthy and detailed document, and many of its features, especially the federal structure, were adopted into the Constitution of India. 1

115. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Union Territories?

(A) Part-VI

(B) Part-VII

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Part VIII of the Indian Constitution contains the articles (239 to 242) related to the administration of Union Territories. 1

116. States Reorganisation Act was enacted in which year?

(A) 1952

(B) 1956

(D) 1966

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The States Reorganisation Act, which reorganized the boundaries of India’s states and territories along linguistic lines, was enacted in 1956. 1

117. The first woman President of India was

(A) Pratibha Patil

(B) Vijayalaxmi Pandit

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Pratibha Patil served as the 12th President of India from 2007 to 2012, becoming the first woman to hold the office. 1

118. The only Prime Minister of India who died abroad during an official tour was

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Gulzari Lal Nanda

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Lal Bahadur Shastri is the only Indian Prime Minister to have died abroad (in Tashkent, 1966); since he is not an option, the correct choice is none of these. 1

119. The number of Rajya Sabha seats in Sikkim is

(A) One

(B) Two

(D) Four

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The state of Sikkim is allocated one seat in the Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the Indian Parliament. 1

120. Who administers the oath to The Governor?

(A) President

(B) Chief Justice of India

(D) Speaker of the concerned state legislative assembly

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The oath of office to the Governor of a state is administered by the Chief Justice of the respective state’s High Court. 1

121. While laying railway tracks, gaps have to be left between successive lengths of rails to allow for

(A) Contraction during the summer

(B) Expansion during the summer

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Gaps are left between railway tracks to allow for linear thermal expansion during the heat of summer, preventing the tracks from buckling. 1

122. A body moving in a medium with a speed greater than the speed of sound in the medium is said to be

(A) Infrasonic

(B) Ultrasonic

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: An object traveling faster than the speed of sound is said to be moving at supersonic speed. 1

123. A man standing in front of a special mirror finds his image having a very small head, a fat body and legs of normal size. What are the shapes of the parts of the mirror respectively?

(A) plane, convex, concave

(B) concave, convex, plane

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: A convex mirror produces a smaller image (small head), a concave mirror produces a magnified image (fat body), and a plane mirror produces an image of the same size (normal legs). 1

124. Washing soda behaves in water as

(A) Alkaline

(B) Acidic

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Washing soda (sodium carbonate) is the salt of a strong base and a weak acid, so its aqueous solution is alkaline due to hydrolysis. 1

125. Which is a synthetic polymer?

(A) Cotton

(B) Starch

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Cotton, starch, and glycogen are all natural polymers; a common synthetic polymer would be nylon or polyester, which are not listed. 1

126. Before its distribution in big cities, the milk is generally subjected to

(A) Homogenisation

(B) Pasteurisation

(D) All of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Pasteurization is a process of heating milk to a specific temperature for a set period to kill harmful bacteria before distribution. 1

127. The fruits of Banyan. Pipal and Mulberry are mainly dispersed by

(A) Wind

(B) Water

(D) Explosive mechanism

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The fleshy fruits of these trees are eaten by birds and other animals, who then disperse the seeds in their droppings. 1

128. ‘Sulphur shower which may give rise to an epidemic of hay-fever is a form of

(A) Sulphur dioxide

(B) Carbon monoxide

(D) Nitrogen dioxide

Answer: (C)

Explanation: ‘Sulphur shower’ is a term for the yellow, pollen-laden air from pine trees, which can trigger allergies like hay fever. 1

129. Butter is a good source of which vitamin?

(A) Vitamin A

(B) Vitamin C

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Butter is a dairy product that is a good source of fat-soluble vitamins, particularly Vitamin A. 1

130. Pace-maker is related to

(A) Heart

(B) Lung

(D) Kidney

Answer: (A)

Explanation: A pacemaker is a medical device that generates electrical impulses to regulate the beating of the heart. 1

131. The Kothari Commission’s report was entitled as

(A) Education and National Development

(B) Education and Social Change in democracy

(D) Learning without Burden

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The report of the Kothari Commission (1964-66) was titled “Education and National Development”. 1

132. The teaching technique must seek to utilise the social forces operative in social life in order to develop capacity for

(A) social problems

(B) social adjustment

(D) social behaviour

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Education aims to use social forces to help individuals develop the capacity for social adjustment and function effectively within society. 1

133. “There cannot be educated people without educated women”, this was indicated by the

(A) University Education Commission (1948-49)

(B) United Nations Declaration on the elimination of discrimination against women

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The University Education Commission (Radhakrishnan Commission) of 1948-49 strongly emphasized the importance of women’s education for national development. 1

134. Creativity increases with

(A) age

(B) experience

(D) practice

Answer: (B)

Explanation: While all factors can contribute, creativity often increases with diverse experiences that provide new perspectives and knowledge. 1

135. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence is proposed by

(A) Sternberg

(B) Thorndike

(D) Guilford

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Triarchic Theory of Intelligence, which posits three types of intelligence (analytical, creative, and practical), was proposed by Robert Sternberg. 1

136. Programmed learning is based on

(A) field theory

(B) operant conditioning

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Programmed learning is based on B.F. Skinner’s theory of operant conditioning, which involves reinforcing desired responses. 1

137. The National Institute at Hyderabad is related with

(A) Hearing Handicap

(B) Mentally Handicap

(D) Orthographically Handicap

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The National Institute for the Mentally Handicapped (now NIEPID) is located in Secunderabad, Hyderabad. 1

138. Which is not a physical determinants of personality?

(A) Homeostatis

(B) Physical attractiveness

(D) Body builds

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Homeostasis is a physiological process of maintaining internal stability, not a direct physical determinant of personality like appearance or body type. 1

139. Human behaviour is determined primarily by

(A) an objective reality

(B) the phenomenal field including the phenomenal self

(D) physiological needs

Answer: (B)

Explanation: From a humanistic psychology perspective (Carl Rogers), behavior is determined by the individual’s subjective reality or phenomenal field. 1

140. Which is the apex body in the area of Teacher Education in India?

(A) UGC

(B) MHRD

(D) NCERT

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) is the statutory body responsible for regulating and maintaining standards in teacher education in India. 1

141. Himachal Pradesh lies between

(A) 30°22′ to 33°12′ North latitude and 75°47′ to 79°4′ East longitude

(B) 27°29′ to 30°22′ North latitude and 72°42′ to 76°5′ East longitude

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: This question tests the precise geographical coordinates that define the latitudinal and longitudinal extent of Himachal Pradesh. 1

142. Himachal Pradesh became the part C state in which year?

(A) 1948

(B) 1950

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Himachal Pradesh was designated as a Part ‘C’ state under the Constitution of India in 1950. 1

143. Chanderkup lake is located in which district of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Shimla

(B) Lahaul-Spiti

(D) Chamba

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Chanderkup Tal (lake) is a high-altitude lake located in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh. 1

144. Markanda river flows in which district of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Una

(B) Kullu

(D) Solan

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Markanda river is a seasonal river that flows through the Sirmour district of Himachal Pradesh. 1

145. Mukkila glacier is situated in which valley of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Bhaga Valley

(B) Chandra Valley

(D) Kullu Valley

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Mukkila glacier is a significant glacier located in the Bhaga Valley of the Lahaul region in Himachal Pradesh. 1

146. Bhunda festival is connected with which of the following?

(A) Jamdagini

(B) Parshuram

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Bhunda festival, celebrated every 12 years in parts of Himachal, is traditionally associated with the sage Parshuram. 1

147. The idea of Nalwari fair of Bilaspur was conceived by which of the following?

(A) Anand Chand

(B) Dr. Y.S. Parmar

(D) Lord Amherst

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Nalwari cattle fair in Bilaspur was started in 1889 by W. Goldstein, the then Superintendent of Shimla Hill States. 1

148. Baijnath in earlier times was known as

(A) Kehloor

(B) Pujarili

(D) None of these

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The ancient name for Baijnath was Kiragrama; therefore, none of the given options are correct. 1

149. Who found the new township of Mandi

(A) Vijay Sen

(B) Abhay Sen

(D) None of these

Answer: (C)

Explanation: Ajber Sen, the 19th ruler of the Mandi state, founded the historical town of Mandi in 1527 AD. 1

150. Mangu, a famous painter belonged to which district of Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Mandi

(B) Kullu

(D) Chamba

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Mangu was a prominent artist associated with the Chamba school of Pahari painting. 1

151. Himachal Pradesh State Commission for women was constituted in which year?

(A) 1992

(B) 1994

(D) 1998

Answer: (C)

Explanation: The Himachal Pradesh State Commission for Women was constituted in 1996 to safeguard the rights and interests of women in the state. 1

152. Nirmand copper plate issued during which century?

(A) 7th

(B) 11th

(D) 17th

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Nirmand copper plate inscription, associated with Maharaja Samudrasena, is dated to the 7th century AD. 1

153. Firoz Shah Tughlaq besieged the fort of Kangra in 1365 A.D. during the reign of which ruler of Kangra?

(A) Ghamand Chand

(B) Sansar Chand

(D) Rup Chand

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Firoz Shah Tughlaq laid siege to the Kangra fort in 1365 AD during the reign of Raja Rup Chand. 1

154. The battle of Nadaun was fought between Raja Bhim Chand of Kahlur and which of the following in late 17th century?

(A) Gurkhas

(B) Sikhs

(D) Mughals

Answer: (D)

Explanation: The Battle of Nadaun (1691) was fought between the hill rajas led by Raja Bhim Chand of Kahlur (Bilaspur) and the Mughals. 1

155. The Panchayati Raj Training Institute is located at which place in Himachal Pradesh?

(A) Jogindernagar

(B) Mashobra

(D) Manali

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The Himachal Pradesh Panchayati Raj Training Institute is located at Mashobra, near Shimla. 1

156. Total number of National Parks in Himachal Pradesh is

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

Answer: (D)

Explanation: Himachal Pradesh has five National Parks: Great Himalayan, Pin Valley, Inderkilla, Khirganga, and Simbalbara. 1

157. Himachal Pradesh Agro-Industries Corporation Ltd. was set up in which year?

(A) 1970

(B) 1971

(D) 1981

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Himachal Pradesh Agro-Industries Corporation Ltd. was established in the year 1970. 1

158. If the first half of the English alphabet is written in reverse order, which would be the 9th letter from the left of 9th letter from your right?

(A) F

(B) I

(D) E

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The 9th letter from the right is R (18th from left); the 9th letter to the left of R is the 9th letter of the alphabet (I), which in the reversed first half (M-A) corresponds to F. 1

159. If the first and second letters of the word, ‘COMPENSATION are interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, and so on, then which would be the fourth letter from the right?

(A) S

(B) N

(D) None of these

Answer: (B)

Explanation: After swapping pairs, the word becomes OCPMENASITNO; the fourth letter from the right is N. 1

160. If orange is called ghee, ghee is called soap, soap is called ink, ink is called honey and honey is called orange, then which one of the following is used for cloth washing?

(A) honey

(B) ghee

(D) ink

Answer: (D)

Explanation: In reality, soap is used for washing clothes, and in this coded language, ‘soap is called ink’. 1

161. In the following number series how many 9’s are which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 4? 2395139673948934932398393

(A) 3

(B) 4

(D) 6

Answer: (B)

Explanation: The pattern ’39’ not followed by ‘4’ appears four times: 395, 396, 398, and 393. 1

162. There are 12 steps in a temple. In the same time Amit comes down ten steps, Sumit goes up one step. they start simultaneously and keep their speeds uniform, then at which step from the bottom will they meet?

(A) 9th

(B) 10th

(D) 12th

Answer: (C)

Explanation: This is a relative speed problem on steps; they will meet at the 11th step from the bottom. 1

163. Vikram is taller than Rajan, but shorter than Anie, Jamal is talled than Anie Sita is taller than Vikram. Rajan is shorter than Sita. Who is the shortest?

(A) Rajan

(B) Sita

(D) Cannot be determined

Answer: (A)

Explanation: From the statements, the height order is Jamal > Anie > Vikram > Rajan, making Rajan the shortest. 1

164. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) recently approved ₹1,340 crore recapitalisation for which category of banks?

(A) Co-operative Banks

(B) Public Sector Banks

(D) Payment Banks

Answer: (C)

Explanation: This question refers to a specific government decision to provide recapitalization funds to strengthen Regional Rural Banks. 1

165. What was the name of the Central Government’s economic package for the poor to fight the corono virus pandemic and lock-down?

(A) Prime Minister Gareeb Kalyan Scheme

(B) Prime Minister Anandata Scheme

(D) None of these

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana was the comprehensive relief package announced by the Government of India in 2020 to help the poor during the COVID-19 pandemic. 1

166. An important personality in Ambedkar’s historic conversion to Buddhism passed away recently. What is his name?

(A) Santu Mukherjee

(B) Sadanand Fulzele

(D) Potturi Venkateswar

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Sadanand Fulzele was the last surviving person who was on the stage with Dr. B.R. Ambedkar during the historic conversion to Buddhism in 1956. 1

167. What is the venue of the main national event for the sixth International Day of Yoga, 2020?

(A) Leh

(B) Nagpur

(D) Imphal

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The main national event for the International Day of Yoga in 2020 was held in Leh, Ladakh. 1

168. Patil Puttappa, who recently passed away, was associated with which field?

(A) Sports

(B) Journalism

(D) Research

Answer: (B)

Explanation: Patil Puttappa was a veteran journalist, writer, and activist from Karnataka. 1

169. Pragyan Conclave 2020′ was an International Seminar organised by which Armed Forces of India?

(A) Indian Army

(B) Indian Navy

(D) Indian Air Force

Answer: (A)

Explanation: The ‘Pragyan Conclave 2020’ was an international seminar organized by the Centre for Land Warfare Studies (CLAWS), an autonomous think tank of the Indian Army. 1

170. Which country recently become the first in the world to make public transport free?

(A) Italy

(B) USA

(D) Luxembourg

Answer: (D)

Explanation: In March 2020, Luxembourg became the first country in the world to make all public transport free to use. 1

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