HAS Pre  2010

I. Indian Economy & Development

1. Which of the following components represent, at least in part, an investment in human capital?
   a) Purchase of machinery and equipment
   b) Expenditure on education, health, and on-the-job training
   c) Construction of roads and bridges
   d) Investment in financial stocks and bonds
   Answer: b) Expenditure on education, health, and on-the-job training
   
2. A key factor that likely led the Y.H. Malegam Committee (constituted by RBI in 2010) to recommend an interest rate cap for Micro-Finance Institutions (MFIs) was:
   a) Excessive profits being made by MFIs
   b) Reports of very high interest rates and coercive recovery practices by some MFIs
   c) Lack of diversification in MFI lending portfolios
   d) Competition from commercial banks in the micro-finance sector
   Answer: b) Reports of very high interest rates and coercive recovery practices by some MFIs
   
3. The Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA), implemented in partnership with the States, primarily aims to address the educational needs of children by focusing on:
   a) Higher education and research
   b) Universalization of elementary education of satisfactory quality
   c) Vocational training for adolescents
   d) Adult literacy programs
   Answer: b) Universalization of elementary education of satisfactory quality
   
4. Who was the Chairman of the first Union Commission for Backward Classes, established in 1953?
   a) B.P. Mandal
   b) Kaka Kalelkar
   c) Justice R.N. Prasad
   d) L.R. Naik
   Answer: b) Kaka Kalelkar
   
5. For which primary function was the V.K. Shunglu Committee constituted by the government in 2010?
   a) To review the working of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
   b) To investigate alleged irregularities in the conduct of the Commonwealth Games 2010
   c) To suggest reforms in the banking sector
   d) To recommend measures for police reforms
   Answer: b) To investigate alleged irregularities in the conduct of the Commonwealth Games 2010
   
6. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA) programme is primarily related to:
   a) Providing agricultural subsidies to farmers
   b) Ensuring food security for Below Poverty Line (BPL) families
   c) Guaranteeing wage employment for rural households whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work
   d) Promoting skill development among rural youth
   Answer: c) Guaranteeing wage employment for rural households whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work
   
7. Which of the following features of Indian agriculture is primarily responsible for disguised unemployment?
   (Features listed in prompt: 1. Dependence on monsoons, 2. Abolition of Zamindari, 3. Absence of Trade Unions, 4. Heavy pressure of population on land)
   a) Dependence of agriculture on the monsoons
   b) Abolition of Zamindari
   c) Absence of Trade Unions in the agricultural sector
   d) Heavy pressure of population on land
   Answer: d) Heavy pressure of population on land
   
8. Among the following, which tax is generally levied by the State government and its revenue is not typically shared with the Central Government?
   a) Income Tax
   b) Corporate Tax
   c) Sales Tax (or State VAT/GST component now) / Entertainment Tax
   d) Customs Duty
   Answer: c) Sales Tax (or State VAT/GST component now) / Entertainment Tax (Entertainment tax was exclusively state before GST, Sales tax also).
   
9. Corporate tax in India is primarily levied on the basis of:
   a) The total sales turnover of a company
   b) The net profits earned by a company
   c) The total assets of a company
   d) The number of employees in a company
   Answer: b) The net profits earned by a company
   
10. India, with its declining death rates and relatively high birth rates (though also declining), is generally considered to be in which stage of Demographic Transition?
    a) Stage 1 (High stationary)
    b) Stage 2 (Early expanding)
    c) Stage 3 (Late expanding)
    d) Stage 4 (Low stationary)1
    Answer: c) Stage 3 (Late expanding)2 (Characterized by falling birth rates and low death rates)
    
11. As per the provisional figures of the Census 2011 (available or projected around 2010), the male literacy rate in India showed an increase, reaching approximately:
    a) 70-75%
    b) 75-80%
    c) 80-85%
    d) Over 85%
    Answer: c) 80-85% (Actual 2011 was 82.14%)
    
12. The Uruguay Round of trade negotiations, which concluded in 1994, led to the establishment of which international organization and covered treaties related to trade in goods, services, and intellectual property?
    a) United Nations (UN)
    b) World Bank
    c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
    d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
    Answer: d) World Trade Organization (WTO)
    
13. For the year 2009-2010, which of the following was India’s second largest trade partner in terms of total trade (sum of imports and exports)?
    a) United States of America
    b) China
    c) United Arab Emirates
    d) European Union (as a bloc, often considered largest, individual countries varied)
    Answer: b) China (or c) UAE, these were interchangeably high. Context of 2010 needed for precision)
    
14. Which of the following is generally the highest export-oriented handicraft (in value terms) in Indian exports?
    a) Woodcrafts
    b) Pottery
    c) Gems and Jewellery (hand-worked components)
    d) Textile-based handicrafts (excluding mill-made)
    Answer: c) Gems and Jewellery (hand-worked components)
    
15. Which of the following is considered a significant possible reason for food inflation in India?
    a) Consistent surplus in food grain production
    b) Efficient supply chain management and minimal wastage
    c) Rising demand, supply-side bottlenecks, and increased Minimum Support Prices (MSPs)
    d) Decreasing global food prices
    Answer: c) Rising demand, supply-side bottlenecks, and increased Minimum Support Prices (MSPs)
    
16. The Central Statistical Organization (CSO) in India is primarily responsible for:
    a) Conducting monetary policy
    b) Regulating the banking sector
    c) Coordination of statistical activities and compilation of national accounts statistics
    d) Formulating five-year plans
    Answer: c) Coordination of statistical activities and compilation of national accounts statistics
    

II. Science & Technology (Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Environment, Nanotech)

17. Antibodies, which are crucial for the immune system, are primarily produced by:
    a) Red blood cells
    b) Platelets
    c) B-lymphocytes (plasma cells)
    d) T-lymphocytes
    Answer: c) B-lymphocytes (plasma cells)
    
18. Night-blindness, a condition affecting vision in low light, is caused by the deficiency of:
    a) Vitamin C
    b) Vitamin D
    c) Vitamin A
    d) Vitamin K
    Answer: c) Vitamin A
    
19. The human eye is most sensitive to visible light in the wavelength range of approximately:
    a) 200 nm to 400 nm (Ultraviolet)
    b) 400 nm to 700 nm (Violet to Red)
    c) 700 nm to 1000 nm (Infrared)
    d) 10 nm to 100 nm (X-rays)
    Answer: b) 400 nm to 700 nm (Violet to Red)
    
20. The definition of the biosphere encompasses:
    a) Only the living organisms on Earth
    b) The part of the Earth where life exists, including land, water, and atmosphere
    c) The non-living components of the Earth’s surface
    d) The Earth’s core and mantle
    Answer: b) The part of the Earth where life exists, including land, water, and atmosphere
    
21. Rhododendron species are characteristic vegetation typically found in:
    a) Desert ecosystems
    b) Tropical rainforests
    c) Temperate and sub-alpine Himalayan regions
    d) Coastal mangrove forests
    Answer: c) Temperate and sub-alpine Himalayan regions
    
22. Some reliable biological indicators of air and water pollution are:
    a) Earthworms and spiders
    b) Lichens and certain aquatic insects
    c) Rats and pigeons
    d) Domestic cats and dogs
    Answer: b) Lichens and certain aquatic insects
    
23. The highly toxic gas released during the Bhopal gas tragedy in December 1984 was:
    a) Phosgene
    b) Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
    c) Sulphur dioxide
    d) Carbon monoxide
    Answer: b) Methyl isocyanate (MIC)
    
24. Carbon dioxide absorbs strongly in the infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum, and its presence in the atmosphere decreases the loss of heat from Earth by radiation. This phenomenon is known as:
    a) Ozone depletion
    b) Acid rain
    c) The Greenhouse Effect
    d) Photochemical smog
    Answer: c) The Greenhouse Effect
    
25. Freons (Chlorofluorocarbons – CFCs) cause great environmental damage primarily because they:
    a) Lead to excessive global warming
    b) Cause depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer
    c) Are highly toxic to aquatic life
    d) Result in increased soil acidity
    Answer: b) Cause depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer
    
26. Among Cytokinin, Auxin, Calcium, and Gibberellin, which one is NOT a plant hormone?
    a) Cytokinin
    b) Auxin
    c) Calcium
    d) Gibberellin
    Answer: c) Calcium (It is an essential plant nutrient, but not a hormone)
    
27. Asbestos is no longer preferred for many commercial uses primarily because:
    a) It is very expensive to produce.
    b) It is not a good insulator.
    c) Inhalation of its fine fibers can cause serious lung diseases, including cancer (asbestosis, mesothelioma).
    d) It is highly flammable.
    Answer: c) Inhalation of its fine fibers can cause serious lung diseases, including cancer (asbestosis, mesothelioma).
    
28. From which of the following algae is Iodine commonly obtained on a commercial scale?
    a) Chlorella
    b) Spirogyra
    c) Laminaria (a type of brown seaweed/kelp)
    d) Volvox
    Answer: c) Laminaria (a type of brown seaweed/kelp)
    
29. The term ‘Biomagnification’ refers to:
    a) The increase in size of an organism with age
    b) The process of magnifying biological specimens under a microscope
    c) The increasing concentration of a toxic substance in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain3
    d) The rapid growth of microbial populations in nutrient-rich waters
    Answer: c) The increasing concentration of a toxic substance in the tissues of organisms at successively higher levels in a food chain4
    
30. Which part of the world generally has a high density and diversity of organisms?
    a) Polar ice caps
    b) Deep ocean trenches
    c) Tropical rainforests and coral reefs
    d) Arid deserts
    Answer: c) Tropical rainforests and coral reefs
    
31. Haemorrhagic dengue fever, a severe form of dengue, is spread by the bite of infected:
    a) Anopheles mosquitoes
    b) Aedes aegypti mosquitoes
    c) Culex mosquitoes
    d) Sandflies
    Answer: b) Aedes aegypti mosquitoes
    
32. Which of the following is a characteristic property of LASER (Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation)?
    a) Polychromatic and divergent
    b) Incoherent and low intensity
    c) Monochromatic, coherent, and highly directional
    d) Emits spontaneous radiation only
    Answer: c) Monochromatic, coherent, and highly directional
    
33. In which form is phosphorus predominantly found and absorbed by plants from the soil?
    a) Elemental phosphorus (P)
    b) Phosphate ions (e.g., H₂PO₄⁻, HPO₄²⁻)
    c) Phosphine gas (PH₃)
    d) Organic phosphorus compounds directly
    Answer: b) Phosphate ions (e.g., H₂PO₄⁻, HPO₄²⁻)
    
34. Carbohydrates are primarily used in the body as:
    a) Building blocks for enzymes
    b) A major source of energy
    c) Components of genetic material
    d) Insulators against heat loss
    Answer: b) A major source of energy
    
35. Nanotechnology involves the manipulation and use of materials and particles at which approximate size scale?
    a) Millimeter scale (10⁻³ m)
    b) Micrometer scale (10⁻⁶ m)
    c) Nanometer scale (1 to 100 nm, i.e., 10⁻⁹ m)
    d) Picometer scale (10⁻¹² m)
    Answer: c) Nanometer scale (1 to 100 nm, i.e., 10⁻⁹ m)
    
36. Among Cadmium, Mercury, Lead, and Sodium, which one is generally considered non-toxic at typical environmental or dietary levels and is an essential nutrient?
    a) Cadmium
    b) Mercury
    c) Lead
    d) Sodium
    Answer: d) Sodium
    

III. Geography (World & India)

37. What is the general name given to the powerful internal and external forces that shape and reshape the Earth’s crust, leading to the formation of landforms?
    a) Gravitational forces
    b) Geomorphic processes (or Tectonic forces for internal)
    c) Atmospheric forces
    d) Hydrological forces
    Answer: b) Geomorphic processes (or Tectonic forces for internal)
    
38. Which type of clouds are often associated with thunderstorms and can cause the heaviest downpours?
    a) Cirrus clouds
    b) Stratus clouds
    c) Cumulonimbus clouds
    d) Cumulus clouds (fair weather)
    Answer: c) Cumulonimbus clouds
    
39. Which of the following deep oceanic trenches is located in the Pacific Ocean and is known as the deepest point on Earth?
    a) Puerto Rico Trench
    b) Java Trench
    c) Mariana Trench
    d) South Sandwich Trench
    Answer: c) Mariana Trench
    
40. Which term is used for the imaginary lines drawn on a map connecting places having an equal amount of rainfall during a specific period?
    a) Isobars
    b) Isotherms
    c) Isohyets
    d) Contours
    Answer: c) Isohyets
    
41. As of 2010, which country was the newest (eighth) member of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC), having joined in 2007?
    a) Myanmar
    b) China
    c) Afghanistan
    d) Iran
    Answer: c) Afghanistan
    
42. The “Silicon Valley” in the United States of America is famous primarily for its concentration of:
    a) Automobile manufacturing industries
    b) Film production studios
    c) High-technology, software, and internet companies
    d) Financial institutions and stock exchanges
    Answer: c) High-technology, software, and internet companies
    
43. Which country has the largest number of native Spanish-speaking population in the world?
    a) Spain
    b) Argentina
    c) Mexico
    d) Colombia
    Answer: c) Mexico
    
44. In which Indian State is the Tawang Buddhist Monastery, one of the largest monasteries in India, located?
    a) Sikkim
    b) Himachal Pradesh
    c) Arunachal Pradesh
    d) Jammu and Kashmir (now Ladakh UT)
    Answer: c) Arunachal Pradesh
    
45. The “Golden Quadrilateral” project in India is primarily relevant to the development of:
    a) A network of high-speed railway lines
    b) A national highway network connecting major metropolitan cities
    c) A chain of new airports in major cities
    d) A series of new sea ports along the Indian coastline
    Answer: b) A national highway network connecting major metropolitan cities
    
46. Which of the following Indian ports is notably located on an estuary?
    a) Chennai Port
    b) Mumbai Port
    c) Mormugao Port (on Zuari estuary) / Kolkata Port (on Hooghly river, an estuarine river)
    d) Paradip Port
    Answer: c) Mormugao Port (on Zuari estuary) / Kolkata Port (on Hooghly river, an estuarine river) (Kolkata is a classic example).
    
47. What is an archipelago?
    a) A long, narrow strip of land connecting two larger landmasses
    b) A body of water partially enclosed by land
    c) A group or chain of islands clustered closely together in a sea or ocean
    d) A piece of land almost surrounded by water but connected to the mainland
    Answer: c) A group or chain of islands clustered closely together in a sea or ocean
    
48. Among Russia, United States of America, United Kingdom, and India, which country is divided into the largest number of time zones across its territory?
    a) United States of America (including overseas territories)
    b) Russia
    c) United Kingdom (including overseas territories)
    d) India
    Answer: b) Russia (Spans 11 time zones)
    

IV. Indian History & Freedom Struggle

49. Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded which influential organization in 1905 to train national missionaries for the service of India?
    a) Dev Samaj
    b) Indian National Conference
    c) Arya Samaj
    d) Servants of India Society
    Answer: d) Servants of India Society
    
50. Pandit Sitaram Agnihotri (or Shiv Narayan Agnihotri) was the founder of which socio-religious reform movement?
    a) Servants of India Society
    b) Dev Samaj
    c) Indian National Conference
    d) Prarthana Samaj
    Answer: b) Dev Samaj
    
51. Mahadev Govind Ranade was one of the key figures behind the establishment of which organization that served as a precursor to the Indian National Congress?
    a) Arya Samaj
    b) Brahmo Samaj
    c) Indian National Conference (Poona Sarvajanik Sabha also influential)
    d) Theosophical Society
    Answer: c) Indian National Conference (Poona Sarvajanik Sabha also influential)
    
52. Swami Dayanand Saraswati was the founder of which reform movement that emphasized a return to the Vedas?
    a) Servants of India Society
    b) Ramakrishna Mission
    c) Arya Samaj
    d) Brahmo Samaj
    Answer: c) Arya Samaj
    
53. The journal ‘Din Bandhu’ (or ‘Deenbandhu’), advocating the cause of peasants and workers, was primarily associated with:
    a) B.G. Tilak
    b) K.N. Natarajan
    c) G.C. Agarkar
    d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande (and Jyotirao Phule)
    Answer: d) Narayan Meghaji Lokhande (and Jyotirao Phule)
    
54. The nationalist newspaper ‘Maratha’ (in English) and ‘Kesari’ (in Marathi) were started by:
    a) N.M. Lokhande
    b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    c) K.N. Natarajan
    d) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar (initially with Tilak)
    Answer: b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    
55. The ‘Indian Social Reformer’ (often cited as Indian Social Report’s precursor in spirit) was a prominent journal edited by:
    a) N.M. Lokhande
    b) B.G. Tilak
    c) K.N. Natarajan (Kamakshi Natarajan)
    d) G.C. Agarkar
    Answer: c) K.N. Natarajan (Kamakshi Natarajan)
    
56. The journal ‘Sudharak’ (Reformer), which advocated social and religious reforms, was started by:
    a) N.M. Lokhande
    b) B.G. Tilak
    c) K.N. Natarajan
    d) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
    Answer: d) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar
    
57. Who was the founder of the Satyashodhak Samaj (Truth-Seekers’ Society) in 1873, which aimed at social reform and education for the depressed classes?
    a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
    b) Swami Dayananda Saraswati
    c) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
    d) Mahadev Govind Ranade
    Answer: c) Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
    
58. Where was the headquarters of the Ghadar Party, a revolutionary organization founded by Punjabi Indians in North America, established in 1913?
    a) London
    b) Vancouver
    c) San Francisco
    d) Berlin
    Answer: c) San Francisco
    
59. By which Act was the system of ‘Diarchy’ (dual government) introduced at the provincial level during British rule in India?
    a) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Minto-Morley Reforms)
    b) Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms)
    c) Government of India Act, 1935
    d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
    Answer: b) Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms)
    
60. During whose Viceroyalty was the controversial Vernacular Press Act, aimed at curbing the freedom of the Indian language press, enacted in 1878?
    a) Lord Ripon
    b) Lord Lytton
    c) Lord Curzon
    d) Lord Dufferin
    Answer: b) Lord Lytton
    
61. The ancient Indian king Harshavardhana of Kanauj is credited with writing which of the following sets of dramas?
    a) Malavikagnimitram, Vikramorvasiyam, Abhijnanasakuntalam
    b) Mudra Rakshasa, Devi Chandraguptam
    c) Ratnavali, Priyadarshika, Nagananda
    d) Svapnavasavadattam, Pratijnayaugandharayana
    Answer: c) Ratnavali, Priyadarshika, Nagananda
    
62. The Sanskrit play ‘Mudra Rakshasa’, which deals with the ascent of Chandragupta Maurya, was written by:
    a) Subandhu
    b) Dandin
    c) Banabhatta
    d) Vishakhadatta
    Answer: d) Vishakhadatta
    
63. Who built the Purana Qila (Old Fort) in Delhi, with construction started by him and later completed by Islam Shah Suri?
    a) Alauddin Khilji
    b) Humayun
    c) Sher Shah Suri
    d) Akbar
    Answer: c) Sher Shah Suri (Humayun also contributed but Sher Shah is primarily credited with its current form)
    
64. In the 19th century, the Moplah (Mappila) peasants of Malabar revolted primarily against the tyranny of:
    a) British indigo planters
    b) Local Hindu landlords (Jenmis) and British authorities
    c) Portuguese traders
    d) French colonial rulers
    Answer: b) Local Hindu landlords (Jenmis) and British authorities
    
65. The Dutch East India Company established one of its early and important settlements in India at:
    a) Hugli
    b) Goa
    c) Pulicat
    d) Chinsura
    Answer: c) Pulicat
    
66. The British India Society was founded in England in 1839 with the efforts of individuals like:
    a) Dwarkanath Tagore
    b) William Adams
    c) Lala Lajpat Rai
    d) George Thompson
    Answer: b) William Adams
    

V. Indian Polity & Constitution

67. Who was the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha (House of the People) of India, constituted in 1952?
    a) Sardar Hukam Singh
    b) M. A. Ayyangar
    c) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar
    d) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
    Answer: c) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar
    
68. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains provisions regarding the disqualification of Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of State Legislatures (MLAs) on the ground of defection?
    a) Eighth Schedule
    b) Ninth Schedule
    c) Tenth Schedule
    d) Twelfth Schedule
    Answer: c) Tenth Schedule
    
69. The Telugu Desam Party (TDP) is a major regional political party primarily based in which Indian state?
    a) Karnataka
    b) Andhra Pradesh (and later Telangana)
    c) Tamil Nadu
    d) Kerala
    Answer: b) Andhra Pradesh (and later Telangana)
    
70. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India hold that the Preamble is an integral part of the Indian Constitution?
    a) Golaknath case
    b) Berubari Union case (initially said not a part, later view changed)
    c) Kesavananda Bharati case
    d) Minerva Mills case
    Answer: c) Kesavananda Bharati case (though it also stated Preamble is not a source of power nor a limitation).
    
71. Who is empowered to declare a Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Indian Constitution?
    a) The Prime Minister
    b) The Union Finance Minister
    c) The President of India
    d) The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India
    Answer: c) The President of India
    
72. Under the Constitution of India, who is considered the ultimate guardian or protector of the Fundamental Rights of citizens?
    a) The Parliament
    b) The President
    c) The Prime Minister
    d) The Judiciary (Supreme Court and High Courts)
    Answer: d) The Judiciary (Supreme Court and High Courts)
    
73. Who decides whether a particular bill introduced in the Parliament is a Money Bill or not, with their decision being final?
    a) The President of India
    b) The Prime Minister
    c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    d) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
    Answer: c) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
    
74. The provision for the ‘Concurrent List’ in the Indian Constitution, which allows both Union and State governments to legislate, was borrowed from the Constitution of:
    a) United Kingdom
    b) U.S.A.
    c) Australia
    d) Canada
    Answer: c) Australia
    
75. Under which of the following circumstances can a National Emergency be declared in India by the President under Article 352?
    a) Failure of constitutional machinery in a state
    b) Threat to financial stability or credit of India
    c) War, external aggression, or armed rebellion
    d) Disagreement between the two Houses of Parliament
    Answer: c) War, external aggression, or armed rebellion
    
76. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, among other things, incorporated which of the following into the Indian Constitution?
    a) Anti-Defection Law
    b) Panchayati Raj provisions
    c) Fundamental Duties
    d) Right to Property as a legal right
    Answer: c) Fundamental Duties
    
77. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, appointed in 1957, is significantly related to recommendations concerning:
    a) Electoral reforms
    b) Centre-State relations
    c) The establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system (Democratic Decentralization)
    d) Linguistic reorganization of states
    Answer: c) The establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system (Democratic Decentralization)
    
78. Who among the following can be appointed as the Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India, as per the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (with amendments)?
    a) Any serving judge of the Supreme Court
    b) A retired Chief Justice of India or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court
    c) Any retired Chief Justice of a High Court
    d) A distinguished jurist appointed by the President
    Answer: b) A retired Chief Justice of India or a retired Judge of the Supreme Court (Original Act specified only retired CJI, amendments expanded eligibility).
    

VI. Himachal Pradesh Specific

79. What was roughly the ratio between the population density of Himachal Pradesh and the population density of India as per the provisional figures of the 2011 Census (considering 2010 context)?
    (India’s density was 382, HP’s was 123 in 2011. Ratio approx 1:3)
    a) Approximately 1:1
    b) Approximately 1:2
    c) Approximately 1:3
    d) Approximately 1:4
    Answer: c) Approximately 1:3
    
80. The Siul stream is an important tributary of which major river that flows through Himachal Pradesh?
    a) Sutlej
    b) Beas
    c) Ravi
    d) Chenab
    Answer: c) Ravi
    
81. What distinctive figure is commonly found on the ancient coins of the Audumbara rulers, who flourished in the region of present-day Himachal Pradesh?
    a) A seated Buddha
    b) A trident (Trishula) with an axe, often associated with Sage Vishvamitra or Shiva
    c) A horse performing Ashvamedha
    d) A depiction of a stupa
    Answer: b) A trident (Trishula) with an axe, often associated with Sage Vishvamitra or Shiva
    
82. Arrange the following ancient authors/geographers who wrote about the Himalayan region in their correct approximate chronological order: Panini, Ptolemy, Chandragomin, Varahamihira.
    a) Ptolemy, Panini, Varahamihira, Chandragomin
    b) Panini, Ptolemy, Chandragomin, Varahamihira
    c) Chandragomin, Varahamihira, Panini, Ptolemy
    d) Varahamihira, Chandragomin, Ptolemy, Panini
    Answer: b) Panini, Ptolemy, Chandragomin, Varahamihira (Panini ~5th BCE, Ptolemy ~2nd CE, Chandragomin ~5th CE, Varahamihira ~6th CE)
    
83. The remote region of Dodra Kwar in Himachal Pradesh is situated predominantly on the basin of which river or its tributaries?
    a) Beas
    b) Sutlej
    c) Rupin (a tributary of Tons, which joins Yamuna)
    d) Ravi
    Answer: c) Rupin (a tributary of Tons, which joins Yamuna)
    
84. What is the distinct architectural style of the Jawalamukhi Temple in Kangra District, Himachal Pradesh, characterized by its dome?
    a) Nagara style with a shikhara
    b) Dravidian style with a gopuram
    c) Domed structure influenced by Sikh or Mughal architecture, built over a traditional base
    d) Pagoda style with multiple tiered roofs
    Answer: c) Domed structure influenced by Sikh or Mughal architecture, built over a traditional base (The current gilded dome was built by Maharaja Ranjit Singh).
    
85. In which District of Himachal Pradesh is the Suraj Tal (Lake of the Sun God), one of the highest lakes in India, located?
    a) Kinnaur
    b) Chamba
    c) Kullu
    d) Lahaul-Spiti
    Answer: d) Lahaul-Spiti
    
86. Which mountain range geographically separates the district of Sirmaur from Shimla in Himachal Pradesh?
    a) Pir Panjal Range
    b) Dhauladhar Range
    c) Choordhar Range (Chur Dhar)
    d) Zanskar Range
    Answer: c) Choordhar Range (Chur Dhar)
    
87. Who is credited with founding the Guler state in the Kangra region of Himachal Pradesh around 1405 A.D.?
    a) Sansar Chand
    b) Hari Chand
    c) Bir Chand
    d) Ajbar Sen
    Answer: b) Hari Chand
    
88. Which ruler of Chamba princely state famously defied Mughal emperor Aurangzeb’s order to demolish the Hindu temples in his state?
    a) Sahil Varman
    b) Prithvi Singh
    c) Chattar Singh
    d) Umed Singh
    Answer: c) Chattar Singh
    
89. Which village Panchayat in Kinnaur District of Himachal Pradesh gained attention for unanimously electing all women members during the December 2010 – January 2011 Panchayat elections?
    a) Kalpa
    b) Kamroo (or a similar specific Panchayat noted for this then)
    c) Sangla
    d) Nichar
    Answer: b) Kamroo (or a similar specific Panchayat noted for this then) (This requires specific knowledge of that election’s local news; Kamru was one such instance cited).
    
90. In which district of Himachal Pradesh is the Uhl Hydroelectric Project located?
    a) Kullu
    b) Shimla
    c) Chamba
    d) Mandi (at Jogindernagar)
    Answer: d) Mandi (at Jogindernagar)
    
91. As per the provisional figures of the 2011 Census (anticipated in 2010), which District of Himachal Pradesh was expected to have or had the highest child (0-6 years) sex ratio?
    a) Kinnaur
    b) Lahaul-Spiti
    c) Hamirpur
    d) Kangra
    Answer: b) Lahaul-Spiti (Generally has a better child sex ratio).
    
92. In which year was the “Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana” (SGSY), a rural self-employment program, launched in India (and subsequently in Himachal Pradesh)?
    a) 1995
    b) 1999
    c) 2001
    d) 2005
    Answer: b) 1999
    
93. The “Mukhya Mantri Bal Uddhar Yojana” of the Himachal Pradesh Government (around 2010) was primarily restricted to providing benefits to children belonging to which families?
    a) All families residing in rural areas
    b) Families Below Poverty Line (BPL)
    c) Families of government employees
    d) Families affected by natural disasters
    Answer: b) Families Below Poverty Line (BPL)
    
94. To whom was the territory of Kangra bestowed as a Jagir by the Mughal emperor Akbar?
    a) Raja Man Singh
    b) Todar Mal
    c) Birbal
    d) Faizi
    Answer: c) Birbal
    
95. Who commanded the Mughal forces that successfully subdued the Kangra fort in 1620 AD during the reign of Emperor Jahangir?
    a) Mahabat Khan
    b) Shaikh Farid (Nawab Murtaza Khan)
    c) Asaf Khan
    d) Abdullah Khan
    Answer: b) Shaikh Farid (Nawab Murtaza Khan)
    
96. Who was the Chairman of the joint meeting of Shimla Hill States Rulers and Praja Mandal representatives held in January 1948 at Solan, which was significant for Himachal’s formation?
    a) Dr. Y.S. Parmar
    b) Raja Durga Singh of Baghat
    c) Pandit Padam Dev
    d) Raja Anand Chand of Bilaspur
    Answer: b) Raja Durga Singh of Baghat
    
97. Which was the main opposition group or party in the Himachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly during the 1950s?
    a) Communist Party of India
    b) Bharatiya Jana Sangh
    c) Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party / Independent candidates often formed the opposition
    d) Swatantra Party
    Answer: c) Kisan Mazdoor Praja Party / Independent candidates often formed the opposition (Organized opposition was nascent; independents and smaller groups were key).
    
98. Who headed the committee of the Government of India which recommended the transfer of more subjects to the Territorial Council in Himachal Pradesh in 1962?
    a) Sardar Hukam Singh
    b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
    c) Ashok K. Sen
    d) V.K. Krishna Menon
    Answer: c) Ashok K. Sen (The Ashok K. Sen Committee).
    
99. With whose assistance (international agency or country) was the Himachal Pradesh Government’s organic farming and water harvesting project (like ‘Project on Diversified Agriculture supported by…’) often implemented or initiated around the late 2000s/early 2010s?
    a) World Bank
    b) UNDP
    c) Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA)
    d) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
    Answer: c) Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) (JICA has been involved in HP’s agricultural and forestry projects).
    

VII. Current Affairs (around 2010) & Miscellaneous GK

100. Which day is observed as Martyrs’ Day in India to commemorate the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi? a) 23rd March b) 30th January c) 15th August d) 2nd October Answer: b) 30th January