2018 TGT Non Medical -

1. The Italian traveler Nicolo Conti visited Vijayanagar in the reign of which king?

(A) Krishna Deva Raya

(B) Harihara II

(D) Bukka Raya I

Answer: (C) Deva Raya I

Explanation: Nicolo Conti was an Italian merchant and explorer who visited Vijayanagar during the reign of Deva Raya I.

2. The famous peacock throne originally belonged to which Mughal emperor?

(A) Akbar

(B) Jahangir

(D) Shah Jahan

Answer: (D) Shah Jahan

Explanation: The Peacock Throne was a jeweled throne commissioned by the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan.

3. Which crop was introduced in India by the Portuguese?

(A) Cotton

(B) Sugarcane

(D) Wheat

Answer: (C) Tobacco

Explanation: Tobacco was introduced in India by the Portuguese.

4. Who has been called the ‘Father of Tomb building’?

(A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak

(B) Balban

(D) Iltutmish

Answer: (D) Iltutmish

Explanation: Iltutmish is credited with introducing the first tomb building in India, thus earning the title ‘Father of Tomb building’.

5. When did the Communist Party come into existence in India?

(A) 1920

(B) 1925

(D) 1942

Answer: (B) 1925

Explanation: The Communist Party came into existence in India in the year 1925.

6. Motilal Nehru drew the Nehru Report containing proposals for constitutional reforms in which year?

(A) 1925

(B) 1928

(D) 1935

Answer: (B) 1928

Explanation: The Nehru Report, which contained proposals for constitutional reforms, was drawn up by Motilal Nehru in 1928.

7. Which plateau lies to the south of the Ranchi Plateau?

(A) Palamu Plateau

(B) Hazaribagh Plateau

(D) Chota Nagpur Plateau

Answer: (B) Hazaribagh Plateau

Explanation: The Hazaribagh Plateau is situated to the south of the Ranchi Plateau.

8. Which river has its source near Ajmer, in the Aravalli Range?

(A) Chambal

(B) Luni

(D) Sabarmati

Answer: (B) Luni

Explanation: The Luni river originates near Ajmer in the Aravalli Range.

9. In which month does the South-West monsoon bring rain in India?

(A) April

(B) June

(D) October

Answer: (B) June

Explanation: The South-West monsoon typically brings rain to India in the month of June.

10. Among Iron, Magnesium, Aluminium, and Phosphorous, which mineral is not found in black soil?

(A) Iron

(B) Magnesium

(D) Phosphorus

Answer: (D) Phosphorus

Explanation: Phosphorus is a mineral that is not found in black soil.

11. Which region in India is devoid of trees?

(A) Alpine zone

(B) Deciduous forest

(D) Mangrove forest

Answer: (A) Alpine zone

Explanation: The Alpine zone in India is a region that is devoid of trees.

12. Most of the coalfields of Jharkhand and West Bengal are located in the valley of which river?

(A) Ganga

(B) Brahmaputra

(D) Mahanadi

Answer: (C) Damodar

Explanation: Most of the coalfields of Jharkhand and West Bengal are located in the valley of the Damodar river.

13. In which State among Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Jammu & Kashmir, and Meghalaya is canal irrigation not common?

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Assam

(D) Meghalaya

Answer: (D) Meghalaya

Explanation: Canal irrigation is not common in the state of Meghalaya.

14. Truck farming is associated with the cultivation of which type of produce?

(A) Grains

(B) Fruits

(D) Spices

Answer: (C) Vegetables

Explanation: Truck farming is a type of farming associated with vegetables.

15. A wide variety of engineering cutting tools are manufactured at which city?

(A) Chennai

(B) Mumbai

(D) Delhi

Answer: (A) Chennai

Explanation: Chennai is a manufacturing hub for a wide variety of engineering cutting tools.

16. Among Argentina, Bolivia, Uruguay, and Ecuador, which country does not border Brazil?

(A) Argentina

(B) Bolivia

(D) Ecuador

Answer: (D) Ecuador

Explanation: Ecuador is the only country among the given options that does not share a border with Brazil.

17. Why have continents drifted apart?

(A) Volcanic eruptions

(B) Tectonic activities

(D) Glaciation

Answer: (B) Tectonic activities

Explanation: Continents have drifted apart due to tectonic activities.

18. As per the constitution of India, which right cannot be taken away during an emergency?

(A) Right to freedom of speech

(B) Right to assemble peacefully

(D) Right to freedom of movement

Answer: (C) Right to life

Explanation: The Right to life is a fundamental right that cannot be suspended during a state of emergency in India.

19. Which is the real guiding factor for the State to meet social needs and for the establishment of a new social order?

(A) Fundamental Rights

(B) Preamble of the Constitution

(D) Fundamental Duties

Answer: (C) Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy serve as the real guiding factor for the State to address social needs and establish a new social order.

20. In which year were the fundamental duties added to the constitution of India?

(A) 1950

(B) 1976

(D) 1991

Answer: (B) 1976

Explanation: The fundamental duties were added to the Indian constitution in the year 1976.

21. To whom does the Vice President of India address his resignation letter to resign from his office?

(A) Prime Minister of India

(B) Chief Justice of India

(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation: The Vice President of India addresses his resignation letter to the President of India to resign from his office.

22. Who determines the salaries and allowances of the State Ministers?

(A) Parliament

(B) State Legislature

(D) President

Answer: (B) State Legislature

Explanation: The salaries and allowances of the State Ministers are determined by the State Legislature.

23. Which body performs the central banking functions in India?

(A) SBI

(B) RBI

(D) PNB

Answer: (B) RBI

Explanation: The central banking functions in India are performed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

24. The concept of Navratnas evolved in the Union Budget of which year?

(A) 1991-92

(B) 1995-96

(D) 2000-01

Explanation: The concept of Navratnas was introduced in the Union Budget of 1997-98.

25. Which among UNDP, UNIDO, and IBRD administers the International Development Association?

(A) UNDP

(B) UNIDO

(D) IMF

Answer: (C) IBRD

Explanation: The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) administers the International Development Association.

26. The “Earn while you Learn” scheme has been launched by which Ministry?

(A) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(B) Ministry of Skill Development

(D) Ministry of Youth Affairs

Answer: (C) Ministry of Tourism

Explanation: The “Earn while you Learn” scheme has been launched by the Ministry of Tourism.

27. In which year did India switch over to decimal currencies?

(A) 1947

(B) 1950

(D) 1965

Explanation: India switched to decimal currencies in the year 1957.

28. Who won the International Cricketer of the year at the CEAT Cricket Rating awards 2018?

(A) Rohit Sharma

(B) Virat Kohli

(D) Shikhar Dhawan

Answer: (B) Virat Kohli

Explanation: Virat Kohli won the International Cricketer of the year at the CEAT Cricket Rating awards in 2018.

29. Who recently became the oldest Indian woman to have scaled the world’s tallest peak, Mount Everest?

(A) Bachendri Pal

(B) Sangeeta Bahl

(D) Malavath Poorna

Answer: (B) Sangeeta Bahl

Explanation: Sangeeta Bahl became the oldest Indian woman to scale Mount Everest.

30. Which smart city recently became India’s first city to run on 100% Renewable Energy during Daytime?

(A) Chandigarh

(B) Bhopal

(D) Jaipur

Answer: (C) Diu

Explanation: Diu became India’s first city to run entirely on renewable energy during the daytime.

31. The WHO has launched which comprehensive plan to eliminate trans fat in food by 2023?

(A) REMOVE

(B) REDUCE

(D) REVIVE

Answer: (C) REPLACE

Explanation: The WHO launched the REPLACE comprehensive plan to eliminate trans fat in food by 2023.

32. What type of climate does Lahaul Spiti and Kinnaur have?

(A) Tropical

(B) Semi Arctic type

(D) Subtropical

Answer: (B) Semi Arctic type

Explanation: The climate of Lahaul Spiti and Kinnaur is of a Semi Arctic type.

33. Who was the powerful king of Kiratas in the lower Shivaliks who fought against the Aryan King, Divodas?

(A) Sambara

(B) Shambra

(D) Susharma

Answer: (B) Shambra

Explanation: Shambra was the powerful king of Kiratas who fought against the Aryan King Divodas.

34. In which year was the building that houses the Himachal Pradesh Vidhan Sabha built?

(A) 1912

(B) 1925

(D) 1947

Answer: (B) 1925

Explanation: The building for the Himachal Pradesh Vidhan Sabha was built in 1925.

35. Shilli wild life sanctuary is located in which district of H.P.?

(A) Shimla

(B) Kullu

(D) Kinnaur

Answer: (C) Solan

Explanation: Shilli wildlife sanctuary is located in the Solan district of Himachal Pradesh.

36. He delights ________ teasing me.

(A) on

(B) at

(D) in

Answer: (D) in

Explanation: The correct preposition to use after ‘delights’ in this context is ‘in’.

37. What is the antonym of the word ‘Whimsical’?

(A) Capricious

(B) Fanciful

(D) Erratic

Answer: (C) Normal

Explanation: The antonym of whimsical, which means ‘playful’ or ‘fanciful’, is ‘normal’.

38. What is the meaning of the idiom ‘To rip old sores’?

(A) To heal a wound

(B) To reopen a quarrel

(D) To create new problems

Answer: (B) To reopen a quarrel

Explanation: The idiom ‘to rip old sores’ means to reopen a quarrel or a painful situation from the past.

39. What is the nature of electromagnetic force?

(A) Only attractive in nature

(B) Only repulsive in nature

(D) Neither attractive nor repulsive

Answer: (C) Attractive as well as repulsive in nature

Explanation: Electromagnetic force can be both attractive and repulsive in nature.

40. What is the order of the magnitude of the number 11?

(A) -1

(B) 0

(D) 2

Answer: (C) 1

Explanation: The order of magnitude of a number is the power of 10 that best approximates it; for 11, it is 1 (10¹).

41. A ball is dropped from height ‘h’. What is the velocity attained by the ball just before reaching the ground?

(A) gh

(B) gh

(D) 2gh

Answer: (C) 2gh

Explanation: According to the law of conservation of energy, the potential energy (mgh) is converted to kinetic energy (1/2mv²), which gives the final velocity as v=2gh.

42. A force of 4N makes an angle of 30° with the x-axis. What is the y-Component of the force?

(A) 4N

(B) 2N

(D) 2.5N

Answer: (B) 2N

Explanation: The y-component of the force is calculated as Fsinθ, which is 4N × sin(30°) = 4 × 0.5 = 2N.

43. Among Kinetic Energy, Work, Power, and Angular Momentum, which one is a vector quantity?

(A) Kinetic Energy

(B) Work

(D) Angular momentum

Answer: (D) Angular momentum

Explanation: Angular momentum is a vector quantity, while the others listed are scalar quantities.

44. The working of a rocket is based on the principle of?

(A) Conservation of energy

(B) Conservation of momentum

(D) Newton’s second law

Answer: (B) Conservation of momentum

Explanation: A rocket’s working principle is based on the conservation of momentum.

45. What is the acceleration of a body moving with constant speed in a circle?

(A) rw

(B) rw²

(D) r/w

Answer: (B) rw²

Explanation: For a body in uniform circular motion, the centripetal acceleration is given by the formula a=rw², where r is the radius and w is the angular velocity.

46. A man pulls a bucket out of a well by means of a rope. What is the work done by the man?

(A) Zero

(B) Negative

(D) Infinite

Answer: (C) Positive

Explanation: Since the force applied by the man is in the same direction as the displacement of the bucket, the work done is positive.

47. What is the moment of inertia of a solid sphere of mass 5 kg and radius 1m about its diameter?

(A) 1/2kgm²

(B) 2/5kgm²

(D) 2kgm²

Answer: (D) 2kgm²

Explanation: The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is given by the formula I=2/5MR², so for M=5kg and R=1m, the answer is 2/5×5×1²=2kgm².

48. What is the angle between the equatorial plane and the orbital plane of a geostationary satellite?

(A) 0°

(B) 30°

(D) 90°

Answer: (A) 0°

Explanation: A geostationary satellite orbits directly above the Earth’s equator, so its orbital plane is the same as the equatorial plane, making the angle between them 0°.

49. What is the bulk modulus for a perfectly rigid body?

(A) Zero

(B) One

(D) Negative

Answer: (C) Infinite

Explanation: A perfectly rigid body is incompressible, meaning it cannot be compressed, which corresponds to an infinite bulk modulus.

50. Two rain drops of radii 0.5 mm and 1.0 mm are falling on a metallic plate. What is the ratio of the velocities of these drops?

(A) 1:2

(B) 1:4

(D) 4:1

Answer: (B) 1:4

Explanation: Terminal velocity (v) is proportional to the square of the radius (r²), so v₁/v₂=(r₁/r₂)². The ratio of radii is 0.5:1.0 or 1:2, so the ratio of velocities is (1/2)²=1/4.

51. By what process are liquids and gases heated?

(A) Conduction

(B) Radiation

(D) Evaporation

Answer: (C) Convection

Explanation: Liquids and gases are heated primarily through the process of convection.

52. A spherical black body with a radius 12 cm radiates 450 W power at 500K. If the radius were halved and the temperature doubled, what would be the power radiated in watts?

(A) 225

(B) 900

(D) 3600

Answer: (C) 1800

Explanation: The radiated power (P) is proportional to the area (r²) and the fourth power of the temperature (T⁴). So, P ∝r²T⁴. If the radius is halved (r/2) and temperature is doubled (2T), the new power will be P’ ∝(r/2)²(2T)⁴=(1/4)(16)r²T⁴=4r²T⁴. This means the power is 4 times the original power, so 4×450W=1800W.

53. What is the degree of freedom of a monoatomic gas molecule?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 5

Answer: (C) 3

Explanation: A monoatomic gas molecule has three translational degrees of freedom.

54. A long spring is stretched by 2 cm. Its potential energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, what will be the potential energy stored in it?

(A) 5U

(B) 10U

(D) 50U

Answer: (C) 25U

Explanation: The potential energy stored in a spring is proportional to the square of its extension (U∝x²). Since the extension is increased by a factor of 5 (from 2 cm to 10 cm), the potential energy will increase by a factor of 5², which is 25, so the new potential energy is 25U.

55. The speed of sound in air is affected by the change in what factor?

(A) Pressure

(B) Density

(D) Humidity

Answer: (C) Temperature

Explanation: The speed of sound in air is directly affected by changes in temperature.

56. What is the capacitance (in F) of a spherical conductor of radius 1m?

(A) 1.1×10⁻¹⁰

(B) 1.1×10⁻¹¹

(D) 9×10¹¹

Answer: (A) 1.1×10⁻¹⁰

Explanation: The capacitance of a spherical conductor is C = 4πε₀R. For R=1m, C = (1/(9×10⁹))×1≈1.1×10⁻¹⁰ F.

57. In which year did Mahmud of Ghazni plunder the temple of Somnatha?

(A) 1000 A.D.

(B) 1025 A.D.

(D) 1200 A.D.

Answer: (B) 1025 A.D.

Explanation: Mahmud of Ghazni plundered the famous temple of Somnatha in the year 1025 A.D.

58. It is possible to have a positively charged body at which potential?

(A) Zero Potential

(B) Negative Potential

(D) All of the above

Answer: (D) Zero Potential, Negative Potential & Positive Potential

Explanation: A positively charged body can be at a positive, negative, or zero potential depending on the reference point and surrounding charges.

59. The resistance of a wire is 5Ω at 50°C and 6Ω at 100°C. What will be the resistance of the wire at 0°C?

(A) 1Ω

(B) 2Ω

(D) 4Ω

Answer: (C) 3Ω

Explanation: Using the formula Rₜ=R₀(1+αt), we can form two equations: 5=R₀(1+50α) and 6=R₀(1+100α). Solving these equations gives R₀=4Ω and α=1/200, so the resistance at 0°C is 4Ω. The provided answer from the source is 3Ω. The calculation based on the formula gives 4Ω, not 3Ω.

60. If the length of a wire is doubled, what happens to its conductance?

(A) It will be doubled

(B) It will be halved

(D) It will be quadrupled

Answer: (B) halved

Explanation: Resistance is directly proportional to length (R ∝ L), and conductance is the reciprocal of resistance (C = 1/R). Therefore, if the length is doubled, the resistance doubles, and the conductance is halved.

61. Two cells of 1.25 V and 0.75 V are connected in parallel. What will be the effective voltage?

(A) 2.0 V

(B) 1.25 V

(D) 0.50 V

Answer: (D) 0.50 V

Explanation: When cells are connected in parallel, the effective voltage is the difference between their individual voltages, which is 1.25V – 0.75V = 0.50V.

62. The time period of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is independent of its:

(A) Mass

(B) Charge

(D) Speed

Answer: (D) speed

Explanation: The time period is given by T=2πm/(qB), which is independent of the particle’s speed.

63. What is the magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom?

(A) Equal to zero

(B) Infinite

(D) Negative

Answer: (A) Equal to zero

Explanation: The magnetic moment of a diamagnetic atom is equal to zero.

64. What is a cyclotron used to accelerate?

(A) Neutrons

(B) Electrons

(D) Alpha particles

Answer: (B) Electrons

Explanation: A cyclotron is a particle accelerator used to accelerate charged particles like electrons.

65. What does an electromagnet use as its core?

(A) Copper core

(B) Iron core

(D) Steel core

Answer: (C) Soft iron core

Explanation: An electromagnet typically uses a soft iron core.

66. What is the angle of dip at the magnetic equator?

(A) 0°

(B) 45°

(D) 180°

Answer: (A) 0°

Explanation: The angle of dip is zero at the magnetic equator.

67. In what form does an inductor store energy?

(A) Its electric field

(B) Its magnetic field

(D) Its chemical energy

Answer: (B) Its magnetic field

Explanation: An inductor stores energy in its magnetic field.

68. In Lenz’s law, what is conserved?

(A) Charge

(B) Mass

(D) Momentum

Answer: (C) Energy

Explanation: Lenz’s law is a consequence of the conservation of energy.

69. On what principle does a transformer work?

(A) Self-induction

(B) Mutual induction

(D) Electromagnetic force

Answer: (B) Mutual induction

Explanation: A transformer works on the principle of mutual induction.

70. If the current flowing in a conductor changes by 1%, then by what percentage will the power change?

(A) 1%

(B) 2%

(D) 8%

Answer: (B) 2%

Explanation: Power is proportional to the square of the current (P∝I²). A 1% change in current leads to a 2% change in power (P_new ≈ (1.01)²P_old ≈ 1.02P_old).

71. A thermopile is a number of thermocouples connected in which configuration?

(A) Parallel

(B) Series

(D) None of the above

Answer: (B) Series

Explanation: A thermopile is a collection of thermocouples connected in series.

72. In what way does red light differ from blue light?

(A) Speed

(B) Amplitude

(D) Wavelength

Answer: (C) Frequency

Explanation: Red and blue light differ in their frequency and wavelength, with red light having a lower frequency and longer wavelength than blue light.

73. Polarised light can be produced by which phenomenon?

(A) Reflection

(B) Refraction

(D) Interference

Answer: (C) Scattering

Explanation: Polarized light can be produced by scattering.

74. A ray of light is reflected at an angle of 30°. If the angle of incidence becomes double, what will be the angle of reflection?

(A) 30°

(B) 45°

(D) 90°

Answer: (C) 60°

Explanation: According to the law of reflection, the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection. So, if the angle of incidence becomes 60° (double of 30°), the angle of reflection will also be 60°.

75. What is the mass of a photon at rest?

(A) Zero

(B) Infinite

(D) Negative

Answer: (A) Zero

Explanation: A photon is a massless particle, so its rest mass is zero.

76. When a hydrogen atom is in the first excited level, how does its radius compare to its ground state?

(A) Same

(B) Double

(D) Half

Answer: (A) Same

Explanation: In the first excited level, the radius of the hydrogen atom is the same as the ground state.

77. A p-n junction has a thickness of the order of what magnitude?

(A) 10⁻³ cm

(B) 10⁻⁶ cm

(D) 10⁻¹² cm

Answer: (B) 10⁻⁶ cm

Explanation: The thickness of a p-n junction is on the order of 10⁻⁶ cm.

78. Hubble’s law is based on which effect?

(A) Photoelectric effect

(B) Doppler effect

(D) Raman effect

Answer: (B) Doppler effect

Explanation: Hubble’s law, which states that galaxies are moving away from us, is based on the Doppler effect.

79. What is the number of molecules in 16g of methane?

(A) 6.022×10²³

(B) 12.044×10²³

(D) 1.6×10²⁴

Answer: (A) 6.022×10²³

Explanation: 16g of methane (CH₄) is equal to 1 mole, which contains Avogadro’s number of molecules, 6.022×10²³.

80. In which of the given pairs are the ions iso-electronic?

(A) Al³⁺, O°

(B) Na⁺, Mg²⁺

(D) F⁻, Cl⁻

Answer: (B) Na⁺, Mg²⁺

Explanation: Iso-electronic species have the same number of electrons. Na⁺ and Mg²⁺ both have 10 electrons.

81. Among Nitrogen, Fluorine, Chlorine, and Oxygen, which element has the maximum negative electron gain enthalpy?

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Fluorine

(D) Oxygen

Answer: (C) Chlorine

Explanation: Chlorine has the maximum negative electron gain enthalpy among the given elements.

82. What is the structure of CH₂=C=CH₂?

(A) Bent

(B) Planar

(D) Tetrahedral

Answer: (C) Linear

Explanation: The central carbon atom in allene (CH₂=C=CH₂) is sp hybridized, resulting in a linear geometry.

83. Among Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Ammonia, and Water Vapours, which gas has the highest critical temperature?

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Hydrogen

(D) Water Vapours

Answer: (D) Water vapours

Explanation: Water vapours have the highest critical temperature among the listed gases.

84. What is the percentage of free space in a body-centred cubic unit cell?

(A) 26%

(B) 32%

(D) 52%

Answer: (B) 32%

Explanation: The packing efficiency of a body-centred cubic unit cell is 68%, so the free space is 100% – 68% = 32%.

85. What is the free energy change for a reversible reaction at equilibrium?

(A) Positive

(B) Negative

(D) Infinite

Answer: (C) Zero

Explanation: At equilibrium, the free energy change (ΔG) for a reversible reaction is zero.

86. Among NaOH, Ca(OH)₂, NH₄OH, and KOH, which one is the weakest base?

(A) NaOH

(B) Ca(OH)₂

(D) KOH

Answer: (C) NH₄OH

Explanation: NH₄OH (ammonium hydroxide) is a weak base, while the others are strong bases.

87. What is the oxidation state of Cr in K₂Cr₂O₇?

(A) +2

(B) +3

(D) +7

Answer: (C) +6

Explanation: In potassium dichromate (K₂Cr₂O₇), the oxidation state of chromium (Cr) is +6.

88. How is hydrogen peroxide obtained?

(A) Electrolysis of water

(B) Electrolysis of Sulphuric acid

(D) Electrolysis of sodium chloride

Answer: (B) Sulphuric acid

Explanation: Hydrogen peroxide can be obtained by the electrolysis of sulphuric acid.

89. Which substance is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor?

(A) H₂O

(B) D₂O

(D) Uranium

Answer: (B) D₂O

Explanation: Heavy water (D₂O) is used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor to slow down neutrons.

90. Under what substance can Sodium metal be stored?

(A) Water

(B) Alcohol

(D) Petrol

Answer: (C) Kerosene

Explanation: Sodium metal is highly reactive and is stored under kerosene oil to prevent it from reacting with air and moisture.

91. What does dry powder fire extinguisher contain?

(A) Carbon dioxide

(B) Sand and NaHCO₃

(D) Carbon tetrachloride

Answer: (B) Sand and NaHCO₃

Explanation: Dry powder fire extinguishers typically contain a mixture of sand and sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃).

92. Which phosphorus is the most stable?

(A) White

(B) Red

(D) Yellow

Answer: (C) Black

Explanation: Black phosphorus is the most stable allotrope of phosphorus.

93. By what method are two immiscible liquids separated?

(A) Distillation

(B) Sublimation

(D) Filtration

Answer: (C) Separating funnel

Explanation: A separating funnel is used to separate two immiscible liquids.

94. What does Cinnamic acid give on decarboxylation?

(A) Benzene

(B) Toluene

(D) Phenol

Answer: (C) Styrene

Explanation: Cinnamic acid undergoes decarboxylation to produce styrene.

95. What is the most abundant water pollutant?

(A) Domestic waste

(B) Agricultural runoff

(D) Oil spills

Answer: (C) Industrial waste

Explanation: Industrial waste is the most abundant water pollutant.

96. What is the number of carbon atoms in a unit cell of diamond?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(D) 12

Answer: (C) 8

Explanation: A unit cell of diamond contains 8 carbon atoms.

97. The Van’t Hoff factor for a solute that associates in solution is what compared to 1?

(A) Equal to 1

(B) Greater than 1

(D) 1 less than

Answer: (C) Less than 1

Explanation: For a solute that associates in solution, the Van’t Hoff factor (i) is less than 1, as the number of particles decreases.

98. What is the potential of a hydrogen electrode at pH = 10?

(A) 0 V

(B) -0.59 V

(D) 1.18 V

Answer: (B) -0.59 V

Explanation: The potential can be calculated using the Nernst equation, E=E°-(0.059/1)×pH. For a hydrogen electrode, E°=0, so at pH=10, E = -0.59 V.

99. 60% of a first-order reaction was completed in 60 minutes. Approximately how long would it take for 50% of the same reaction to be completed?

(A) 30 Minutes

(B) 40 Minutes

(D) 50 Minutes

Answer: (C) 45 Minutes

Explanation: For a first-order reaction, t₁/₂=0.693/k. Using the first data point, k can be calculated, and then the time for 50% completion can be found.

100. In which solution is the Tyndall effect not observed?

(A) Milk

(B) Sugar solution

(D) Ink

Answer: (B) Sugar solution

Explanation: The Tyndall effect is observed in colloidal solutions, but not in true solutions like a sugar solution.

101. Among Beryl, Mica, Orthoclass, and Anglesite, which one is not an ore of aluminum?

(A) Beryl

(B) Mica

(D) Anglesite

Answer: (D) Anglesite

Explanation: Anglesite is a lead sulfate mineral, while Beryl, Mica, and Orthoclass are aluminum-containing minerals.

102. Among Nitrogen, Boron, Antimony, and Arsenic, which element does not show allotropy?

(A) Nitrogen

(B) Boron

(D) Arsenic

Answer: (A) Nitrogen

Explanation: Nitrogen does not show allotropy, unlike Boron, Antimony, and Arsenic.

103. Which ore contains both copper and iron?

(A) Malachite

(B) Azurite

(D) Chalcocite

Answer: (C) Chalcopyrite

Explanation: Chalcopyrite (CuFeS₂) is an ore that contains both copper and iron.

104. Among Cis-platin, Ferrocene, Zeise’s salt, and Grignard reagent, which one is not considered as an organometallic compound?

(A) Cis-platin

(B) Ferrocene

(D) Grignard reagent

Answer: (A) Cis-Platin

Explanation: Cis-platin is a coordination compound, not an organometallic compound, as it does not contain a metal-carbon bond.

105. What is the IUPAC name of CH₃COCH(CH₃)₂?

(A) 2-methylbutan-3-one

(B) 3-methylbutan-2-one

(D) 3-methyl-3-butanone

Answer: (B) 3-methylbutan-2-one

Explanation: The longest carbon chain has four carbons with a ketone group at position 2 and a methyl group at position 3, giving the IUPAC name 3-methylbutan-2-one.

106. What does 2,4,6-trinitrochlorobenzene produce on warming with water?

(A) Benzoic acid

(B) Aniline

(D) Phenol

Answer: (C) Picric acid

Explanation: 2,4,6-trinitrochlorobenzene reacts with water to produce picric acid.

107. What does Ethylene oxide yield when reacted with Grignard reagent?

(A) Primary alcohol

(B) Secondary alcohol

(D) Aldehyde

Answer: (A) Primary alcohol

Explanation: Ethylene oxide reacts with Grignard reagents to produce a primary alcohol after hydrolysis.

108. Which test is used for aliphatic primary amines?

(A) Tollen’s test

(B) Isocyanide test

(D) Lucas test

Answer: (B) Isocyanide test

Explanation: The isocyanide test (carbylamine reaction) is a characteristic test for aliphatic primary amines.

109. Nucleic acids are the polymers of which monomers?

(A) Amino acids

(B) Nucleotides

(D) Monosaccharides

Answer: (B) Nucleotides

Explanation: Nucleic acids, like DNA and RNA, are polymers of nucleotides.

110. The set of all prime numbers is classified as what kind of set?

(A) A finite set

(B) An infinite set

(D) A singleton set

Answer: (B) An infinite set

Explanation: The set of all prime numbers is an infinite set.

111. If f(x) = (ax-b)/(bx-a) = y, then f(y) is equal to:

(A) y

(B) x

(D) 0

Answer: (B) X

Explanation: If you substitute y back into the function, you get the original variable x, so f(y) = f((ax-b)/(bx-a)) = (a((ax-b)/(bx-a))-b)/(b((ax-b)/(bx-a))-a) = (a(ax-b)-b(bx-a))/(b(ax-b)-a(bx-a)) = (a²x-ab-b²x+ab)/(abx-b²-abx+a²) = (a²x-b²x)/(a²-b²) = x(a²-b²)/(a²-b²) = x.

112. If sin x + sin²x = 1, then what is the value of cos²x + cos⁴x?

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) 2

Answer: (B) 1

Explanation: From the given equation, sin x = 1 – sin²x = cos²x. Squaring both sides gives sin²x = cos⁴x. Substituting sin²x with 1 – cos²x gives 1 – cos²x = cos⁴x, which rearranges to cos²x + cos⁴x = 1.

113. What is the smallest positive integer ‘n’ for which 2ⁿ(1×2×3,…..×n) < nⁿ holds?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 7

Answer: (D) 7

Explanation: This question relates to the inequality 2ⁿn! < nⁿ. By testing values:

n=4: 2⁴(24) = 16(24) = 384. 4⁴ = 256. 384 < 256 is false.

n=5: 2⁵(120) = 32(120) = 3840. 5⁵ = 3125. 3840 < 3125 is false.

n=6: 2⁶(720) = 64(720) = 46080. 6⁶ = 46656. 46080 < 46656 is true.

Therefore, the smallest positive integer n for which the inequality holds is 6.

114. If z is a complex number, then what does ∣3z−1∣=3∣z−2∣ represent?

(A) A circle

(B) A line passing through the origin

(D) A line parallel to the y-axis

Answer: (D) A line parallel to y-axis

Explanation: This equation represents a straight line. If we substitute z=x+iy, it simplifies to a linear equation in x, representing a line parallel to the y-axis.

115. A fair dice is rolled n times. What is the number of all possible outcomes?

(A) 6n

(B) 6 + n

(D) 6n

Answer: (A) 6n

Explanation: For each roll of a fair die, there are 6 possible outcomes. If the die is rolled n times, the total number of possible outcomes is 6 multiplied by itself n times, which is 6n.

116. If nC₃ = nC₂, then what is the value of ‘n’?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(D) 5

Answer: (D) 5

Explanation: Using the property nCr = nC(n-r), if nC₃ = nC₂, then 3 = n-2, which gives n = 5.

117. What is the approximate value of (1.003)^(1/3)?

(A) 1.001

(B) 1.003

(D) 1.0003

Answer: (A) 1.001

Explanation: Using the binomial approximation, (1+x)^n ≈ 1+nx for small x. Here, x=0.003 and n=1/3. So, 1+(1/3)(0.003)=1+0.001=1.001.

118. What is the sum of all two-digit odd numbers?

(A) 2475

(B) 2500

(D) 2750

Answer: (A) 2475

Explanation: The two-digit odd numbers form an arithmetic progression: 11, 13, …, 99. The sum can be calculated using the formula for AP series. The first term is 11, the last is 99, and the number of terms is 45. The sum is 45/2 * (11+99) = 45/2 * (110) = 45 * 55 = 2475.

119. If the focus of a parabola is (0, -3) and its directrix is Y=3, what is its equation?

(A) y² = -12x

(B) x² = -12y

(D) x² = 12y

Answer: (B) x² = -12y

Explanation: The parabola’s vertex is at (0, 0) and it opens downwards. The distance from the focus to the directrix is 6 units, so 2a=6 and a=3. The equation is of the form x² = -4ay, which is x² = -4(3)y = -12y.

120. If the line x/a + y/b = 1 passes through the points (2, -3) and (4, -5), then what is (a, b)?

(A) (-1, -1)

(B) (1, -1)

(D) (1, 1)

Answer: (A) (-1, -1)

Explanation: Substituting the given points into the equation, we get two equations: 2/a – 3/b = 1 and 4/a – 5/b = 1. Solving these simultaneous equations gives a = -1 and b = -1.

121. The point (-2,-3,-4) lies in which octant?

(A) First octant

(B) Fourth octant

(D) Eighth octant

Answer: (C) Seventh octant

Explanation: The signs of the coordinates (-x, -y, -z) correspond to the seventh octant.

122. What is the value of lim(x→1) (xⁿ – 1) / (xᵐ – 1)?

(A) m/n

(B) n/m

(D) 0

Answer: (A) m/n

Explanation: Using L’Hopital’s rule or the limit formula for this form, the limit is equal to m/n.

123. If y = √x + 1/√x, then what is dy/dx at x=1?

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) -1

Answer: (A) 0

Explanation: The derivative is dy/dx = 1/(2√x) – 1/(2x√x). At x=1, dy/dx = 1/2 – 1/2 = 0.

124. What is the mean deviation of the data 3, 10, 10, 4, 7, 10, 5 from the mean?

(A) 2.57

(B) 3

(D) 5.1

Answer: (A) 2.57

Explanation: The mean of the data is 7. The absolute deviations are |3-7|=4, |10-7|=3, |10-7|=3, |4-7|=3, |7-7|=0, |10-7|=3, |5-7|=2. The sum of deviations is 4+3+3+3+0+3+2 = 18. The mean deviation is 18/7 ≈ 2.57.

125. What is the standard deviation for the first 10 natural numbers?

(A) 2.87

(B) 3.5

(D) 5

Answer: (A) 2.87

Explanation: The standard deviation for the first n natural numbers is √((n² – 1)/12). For n=10, the standard deviation is √((10² – 1)/12) = √((100 – 1)/12) = √(99/12) = √8.25 ≈ 2.87.

126. 6 boys and 4 girls sit in a row at random. What is the probability that all the girls sit together?

(A) 1/30

(B) 1/210

(D) 1/12

Answer: (A) 1/30

Explanation: The total number of arrangements of 10 people is 10!. To find the arrangements where all girls sit together, treat the 4 girls as a single unit. Now we have 6 boys + 1 unit of girls = 7 units to arrange, which can be done in 7! ways. Within the group of 4 girls, they can arrange themselves in 4! ways. So, favorable arrangements = 7! × 4!.

Probability = (7! × 4!) / 10! = (7! × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1) / (10 × 9 × 8 × 7!) = (24) / (10 × 9 × 8) = 24 / 720 = 1/30.

127. If A={1,3} and B={2,7}, then what is the total number of relations defined from A to B?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 16

Answer: (D) 16

Explanation: The number of relations from set A (with m elements) to set B (with n elements) is 2^(mn). Here, m=2 and n=2, so the number of relations is 2^(22) = 2^4 = 16.

128. What is the value of Sin⁻¹x + Cos⁻¹x + Cos⁻¹x?

(A) π/2

(B) π

(D) 3π/2

Answer: (A) π/2

Explanation: This question appears to be incomplete or malformed. However, we know that Sin⁻¹x + Cos⁻¹x = π/2. If the question intended only the first two terms, then the answer is π/2. The presence of an extra Cos⁻¹x suggests a potential typo. Assuming the question implicitly intends to ask for the value of Sin⁻¹x + Cos⁻¹x, the answer is π/2.

129. If A = [2 -1; 3 5] and B = [4 3; 1 -2], then what is A+B?

(A) [6 2; 4 3]

(B) [6 2; 4 -3]

(D) [6 4; 2 3]

Answer: (A) [6 2; 4 3]

Explanation: The sum of the matrices is found by adding the corresponding elements:

A+B = [ (2+4) (-1+3); (3+1) (5-2) ] = [ 6 2; 4 3 ].

130. If |x 18; 2 x| = |6 18; 2 6|, then what is the value of x?

(A) 2

(B) 4

(D) 8

Answer: (C) 6

Explanation: The determinant of the first matrix is (x * x) – (18 * 2) = x² – 36.

The determinant of the second matrix is (6 * 6) – (18 * 2) = 36 – 36 = 0.

So, x² – 36 = 0, which means x² = 36

131. If y=x^x, then what is dy/dx?

(A) x^x

(B) x^x (1+logx)

(D) x^x logx

Answer: (B) x^x (1+log x)

Explanation: Using logarithmic differentiation, take the natural log of both sides, ln(y) = x ln(x), then differentiate with respect to x to get the derivative.

132. What is the second derivative of tanx?

(A) sec²x

(B) 2secxtanx

(D) tan²x

Answer: (C) 2 sec²x tan x

Explanation: The first derivative of tanx is sec²x. The second derivative is the derivative of sec²x, which is 2secx(secxtanx) = 2sec²x tan x.

133. The function f(x)=2x²-4x+7 has a point of minima at x =?

(A) 0

(B) 1

(D) 4

Answer: (B) 1

Explanation: The first derivative is f'(x) = 4x-4. Setting it to zero gives x=1. The second derivative is f”(x) = 4, which is positive, so it is a minimum.

134. What is the shortest distance between the line y-x=1 and the curve x=y²?

(A) 3√2/2

(B) √2/8

(D) 1/2

Answer: (C) 3√2/8

Explanation: The shortest distance is the perpendicular distance from the line to a point on the curve where the tangent has the same slope as the line (slope=1). The point on the parabola is found to be (1/4, 1/2), and the distance is calculated as |1/2 – 1/4 – 1| / √(1² + (-1)²) = |-3/4| / √2 = (3/4) / √2 = 3 / (4√2) = 3√2 / 8.

135. What is the maximum value of xe^(-x)?

(A) 1

(B) 1/e

(D) 0

Answer: (B) 1/e

Explanation: To find the maximum value, differentiate the function and set it to zero. The derivative is e^(-x) – xe^(-x) = e^(-x)(1-x). This is zero when x=1. The maximum value is then 1 × e^(-1) = 1/e.

136. What is the value of ∫[0 to 5] (x+1)dx?

(A) 15

(B) 25

(D) 45/2

Answer: (C) 35/2

Explanation: The integral is ∫[0 to 5] x dx + ∫[0 to 5] 1 dx = [x²/2 + x] from 0 to 5 = (5²/2 + 5) – (0) = (25/2 + 10/2) = 35/2.

137. What is the value of I=∫[0 to π/2] (sin x + cos x)² / (1+sin 2x) dx?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) π/2

Answer: (D) π/2

Explanation: The numerator is sin²x + cos²x + 2sinxcosx = 1 + sin2x. The integrand simplifies to (1+sin2x) / (1+sin2x) = 1. The integral is then ∫[0 to π/2] 1 dx = [x] from 0 to π/2 = π/2 – 0 = π/2.

138. What is the area of the circle x²+y²=9?

(A) 3π

(B) 6π

(D) 12π

Answer: (C) 9π

Explanation: The equation of the circle is x²+y²=r². Here, r²=9, so the radius r=3. The area of a circle is πr², which is π(3²) = 9π.

139. If xdy=ydx+y²dy and y(1)=1, then what is y(-3)?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) -2

Answer: (C) 3

Explanation: This is a differential equation that can be rearranged.

xdy – ydx = y²dy

(xdy – ydx) / y² = dy

This is of the form d(-x/y) = dy.

Integrating both sides gives -x/y = y + C.

Using the condition y(1)=1: -1/1 = 1 + C => -1 = 1 + C => C = -2.

The equation is then -x/y = y – 2.

Substitute x=-3: -(-3)/y = y – 2 => 3/y = y – 2.

Multiply by y: 3 = y² – 2y

y² – 2y – 3 = 0

Factoring the quadratic equation: (y-3)(y+1) = 0.

So y = 3 or y = -1.

Given the options, the provided answer is 3.

140. What is the distance of the plane 2x−3y+6z+14=0 from the origin (0,0,0)?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

Answer: (B) 2

Explanation: The distance of a plane Ax+By+Cz+D=0 from the origin is given by |D| / √(A²+B²+C²). Here, the distance is |14| / √(2² + (-3)² + 6²) = 14 / √(4 + 9 + 36) = 14 / √49 = 14 / 7 = 2.

141. If P(A)=1/2 and P(B)=0, then what is P(A/B)?

(A) 0

(B) 1/2

(D) 1

Answer: (C) Not defined

Explanation: The conditional probability P(A/B) is given by P(A∩B) / P(B). Since the denominator P(B)=0, the expression is undefined.

142. If |a|=2, |b|=5 and |a×b|=8, what is the value of a⋅b?

(A) 4

(B) 6

(D) 10

Answer: (B) 6

Explanation: We know that |a×b|² + |a⋅b|² = |a|²|b|². So, 8² + (a⋅b)² = 2² × 5² = 4 × 25 = 100. This gives 64 + (a⋅b)² = 100, so (a⋅b)² = 36, and a⋅b = ±6. The provided answer is 6.

143. If the probability that A speaks the truth is 4/5 while the probability for B is 3/4, what is the probability that they contradict each other when asked to speak on a fact?

(A) 1/20

(B) 3/20

(D) 12/20

Answer: (C) 7/20

Explanation: They contradict each other if A speaks the truth and B lies OR if A lies and B speaks the truth. This is calculated as (4/5 × (1-3/4)) + ((1-4/5) × 3/4) = (4/5 × 1/4) + (1/5 × 3/4) = 4/20 + 3/20 = 7/20.

144. What is the number of arbitrary constants in the general solution of a differential equation of third order?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(D) 4

Answer: (C) 3

Explanation: The number of arbitrary constants in the general solution of a differential equation is equal to its order.

145. Which informal system is most effective for socialization?

(A) School

(B) Workplace

(D) Peer group

Answer: (C) Family

Explanation: The family is considered the most effective informal system for socialization.

146. Who initiated the process for the education of women in India?

(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

(B) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Answer: (B) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

Explanation: Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar initiated the process for the education of women in India.

147. To which domain do emotions belong?

(A) Cognitive

(B) Affective

(D) Conative

Answer: (B) Affective

Explanation: Emotions, feelings, and attitudes belong to the affective domain of learning.

148. Who gave the Three Dimensional Theory of Intelligence?

(A) Thorndike

(B) Guilford

(D) Gardner

Answer: (B) Guilford

Explanation: J.P. Guilford developed the Three Dimensional Theory of Intelligence, also known as the Structure of Intellect model.

149. What is the most basic category in Maslow’s Hierarchy of Human needs?

(A) Safety needs

(B) Belongingness and love needs

(D) Self-actualization needs

Answer: (C) Physiological needs

Explanation: Physiological needs, such as air, food, and water, are at the base of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

150. In which area do learning disabled children perform very poorly?

(A) Social skills

(B) Academic areas

(D) Sports

Answer: (B) Academic areas

Explanation: Learning disabled children typically struggle and perform poorly in academic areas.

151. Which theory of personality was developed by Sigmund Freud?

(A) Humanistic

(B) Trait

(D) Behavioral

Answer: (C) Psychoanalytic

Explanation: The psychoanalytic theory of personality was developed by Sigmund Freud.

152. How can the specific learning problems of students be found out?

(A) Assessment

(B) Diagnosis

(D) Observation

Answer: (B) Diagnosis

Explanation: Diagnosis is the process used to identify the specific learning problems of students.

153. In 1944, who presented a scheme known as the Sargent Plan?

(A) Sir John Sargent

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

Answer: (A) Sir John Sargent

Explanation: The Sargent Plan, a scheme for post-war educational development in India, was presented by Sir John Sargent in 1944.

154. If a student fails to answer a question in your class, what will you do?

(A) Punish her

(B) Ask another student

(D) Ignore her

Answer: (C) Try to prompt her

Explanation: A good teaching practice is to prompt the student to help her find the answer, rather than moving on or punishing her.

155. What is the most important quality of a teacher?

(A) Good communication skills

(B) Content mastery & Communication competency

(D) Strictness

Answer: (B) Content mastery & Communication competency

Explanation: A teacher’s most important qualities are a deep mastery of the subject content and effective communication skills.

156. For which students is Micro-teaching useful?

(A) Nursery students

(B) Primary and Higher classes

(D) Adult learners

Answer: (B) Primary and Higher classes

Explanation: Micro-teaching is a training technique useful for students from primary to higher classes.

157. A teacher who can apply the principles of educational psychology does what to suit the needs of individual children?

(A) Follows a fixed method

(B) Adjusts his method

(D) Gives special classes

Answer: (B) adjusts his method to suit the needs of individual children

Explanation: A teacher who understands educational psychology can adjust their teaching methods to suit the individual needs of children.

158. Teacher Evaluation by students was recommended first in India by which policy?

(A) National Education Policy, 1968

(B) National Policy on Education, 1986

(D) University Education Commission, 1948-49

Answer: (B) National Policy on Education

Explanation: The National Policy on Education recommended teacher evaluation by students for the first time in India.

159. Wood’s Despatch was not responsible for promoting which type of education?

(A) Women’s Education

(B) Vocational Education

(D) Teacher’s Training

Answer: (C) Religious Education

Explanation: Wood’s Despatch was not responsible for promoting religious education.

160. What is the main focus of educational supervision?

(A) Administrative control

(B) Educational Service

(D) Curriculum design

Answer: (B) Educational Service

Explanation: The main focus of educational supervision is providing educational service and support.

161. What is the main form of educational technology?

(A) Instructional Technology

(B) Technology in education

(D) Communication Technology

Answer: (A) Instructional Technology

Explanation: The main form of educational technology is Instructional Technology.

162. In which year was UGC (University Grants Commission) established?

(A) 1950

(B) 1956

(D) 1965

Answer: (B) 1956

Explanation: The University Grants Commission (UGC) was established in 1956.

163. In which year did the Central Advisory Board take the decision to introduce the system of correspondence courses?

(A) 1951

(B) 1961

(D) 1981

Answer: (B) 1961

Explanation: The Central Advisory Board decided to introduce correspondence courses in 1961.

164. Advaita and Dvaita are the sub-schools of which school of philosophy?

(A) Samkhya

(B) Nyaya

(D) Mimamsa

Answer: (C) Vedanta

Explanation: Advaita and Dvaita are two of the sub-schools of the Vedanta school of philosophy.

165. Majority of the Indus beads meant for export to Mesopotamia were made of which material?

(A) Gold

(B) Carnelian

(D) Jasper

Answer: (B) Carnelian

Explanation: Most of the Indus beads intended for export to Mesopotamia were made of carnelian.

166. Mahishamati was the capital of which ancient kingdom?

(A) Kosala

(B) Magadha

(D) Vatsa

Answer: (C) Avanti

Explanation: Mahishamati was the capital city of the ancient kingdom of Avanti.

167. Who was the 23rd Tirthankara in Jainism?

(A) Mahavira

(B) Rishabhanatha

(D) Parshvanatha

Answer: (D) Parshvanatha

Explanation: Parshvanatha was the 23rd Tirthankara of Jainism.

168. The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:

(A) 0

(B) 5

(D) 14

Answer: (C) 7

Explanation: A neutral solution has a pH of 7 at a standard temperature of 25°C.

169. The famous rock-cut temples of Elephanta are located near which city?

(A) Delhi

(B) Chennai

(D) Kolkata

Answer: (C) Mumbai

Explanation: The Elephanta Caves, known for their rock-cut temples, are located on Elephanta Island near Mumbai.

170. What does CCE stand for in the context of school education?

(A) Comprehensive Curriculum Examination

(B) Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation

(D) Continuous Classroom Engagement

Answer: (B) Continuous and Comprehensive Evaluation

Explanation: CCE is a school-based evaluation system that covers all aspects of a student’s development.

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